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The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam covers foundational IT concepts including identifying and explaining computer components, installing software,establishing network connectivity and preventing security risks.
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Latest effective CompTIA IT Fundamentals fc0-u51 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1
A user needs to download tax documents from a financial website.
Which of the following is the website MOST likely to use for transmission of the tax document to the user\\’s browser?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. SFTP
D. FTP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following types of fire extinguishers are needed for combustible liquids\\’ fire such as gasoline and
kerosene?
A. Class C
B. Class B
C. Class D
D. Class A
Correct Answer: B
Class B extinguishers are needed for flammable or combustible liquids\\’ fire such as gasoline, kerosene, grease, and
oil. The numerical rating for a class B extinguisher indicates the approximate area, in square feet, in which it can
extinguish fire. Carbon Dioxide extinguishers are used for class B and C fires. Answer option D is incorrect. Class A
extinguishers are needed for ordinary flammable materials\\’ fire such as paper, wood, cardboard, and most plastics.
Answer option A is incorrect. Class C fire extinguishers are needed for electrical fires. The electrical fire involves
electrical equipments, such as appliances, wiring, and circuit breakers. Water should not be used as an extinguisher for
this type of fire. Carbon Dioxide is a good choice as an extinguisher for an electrical fire on a computer or other
electronic device such as television. Answer option C is incorrect. Class D extinguishers are needed for combustible
metals\\’ fire such as magnesium, titanium, potassium, and sodium.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following ports can be used to connect an external hard drive to a computer? (Select TWO).
A. MIDI
B. PS/2
C. eSATA
D. RJ-45
E. USB
F. RJ-11
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following interfaces is the current standard for digital LCD monitors?
A. DVE
B. SVGA
C. DVI
D. VGA
Correct Answer: C
DVI interface is the current standard for digital LCD monitors. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for
high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates
analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them.
Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals
coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three main categories
of connectors. They are: DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector,
and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors are of two types: single link and dual link. DVI
supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can
be supported with dual links. Answer options D and B are incorrect. VGA and SVGA are old standards for monitors. A
VGA or SVGA interface is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors.
Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such interface standard for digital LCD monitors as DVE. Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_Visual_Interface
QUESTION 5
Which of the following can a user configure on an operating system so that an audible sound is made when an error
message is displayed?
A. Encryption
B. Hot keys
C. Accessibility options
D. Screen captures
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Malware that has an embedded keylogger to capture all of the keystrokes and steal logins is considered:
A. adware
B. spyware
C. ransomware
D. phishing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
After initial OS and application installation on a laptop, an application warns that it will only work 24 more times.
Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. The application has to be registered to the user.
B. The application must be upgraded to a 64-bit version.
C. The application must be activated.
D. The application needs to be reinstalled.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
A user is installing a new scanner on a computer.
Which of the following MOST likely needs to be installed in order for this equipment to work?
A. License key
B. OS update
C. Firmware
D. Driver
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements about Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) are true?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. It ensures that a computer and its components are compatible with the operating system before the operating system
is installed.
B. It contains the listing of all the hardware that operating systems vendors have tested with their operating systems.
C. It ensures that a computer and its components are working properly.
D. It contains the license to use operating systems.
Correct Answer: AB
The Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) contains the listing of all the hardware that operating systems vendors have
tested with their operating systems. Through HCL, an administrator can be sure that a computer and its components are
compatible with the operating system before the operating system is installed. HCL helps administrators to verify that
the CPU, RAM, storage devices, various interface cards, and other hardware components are supported by the
operating systems. Reference: “http://www.microsoft.com/whdc/hcl/default.mspx”
QUESTION 10
Which of the following firewalls inspects the actual contents of packets?
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Application-level firewall
C. Circuit-level firewall
D. Stateful inspection firewall
Correct Answer: B
The application level firewall inspects the contents of packets, rather than the source/destination or connection between
the two. An Application level firewall operates at the application layer of the OSI model.
Answer option C is incorrect. The circuit-level firewall regulates traffic based on whether or not a trusted connection has
been established. It operates at the session layer of the OSI model.
Answer option A is incorrect. The packet filtering firewall filters traffic based on the headers. It operates at the network
layer of the OSI model. Answer option D is incorrect. The stateful inspection firewall assures the connection between
the
two parties is valid and inspects packets from this connection to assure the packets are not malicious.
Reference: “http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Firewall_(networking)#Third_generation_
_application_layer”
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the MOST sensitive Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and should be shared cautiously
and only with trusted resources?
A. Email address
B. Phone number
C. Mother\\’s maiden name
D. Last name
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Your customer is using Windows Vista and complains about the quality of picture he is getting on his monitor. You find
that you cannot adjust the refresh rate or the resolution.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The video card is not recognized by Windows.
B. The monitor is not compatible with the video card.
C. The video card has failed.
D. The video card does not have enough video RAM.
Correct Answer: A
When Windows does not recognize the video card, it gives a set of simplified default settings for refresh rate, resolution,
etc.
Answer option B is incorrect. As long as the monitor can plug into the card, it is compatible. Answer option C is
incorrect. If the video card had failed, there would have been no picture at all on the monitor screen.
Answer option D is incorrect. Lack of sufficient video RAM would just prevent certain graphics from being displayed.
Reference: http://www.technibble.com/troubleshooting-video-cards-problems-and- solutions/
QUESTION 13
An attacker cracks a user\\’s password for all social media, email, and bank accounts. The user needs to change the
passwords for all these accounts.
Which of the following should the user do in the future to prevent this from happening?
A. Disable unused browser toolbars.
B. Clear the browser cache.
C. Avoid credential reuse.
D. Delete tracking cookies.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which of the following storage methods provides the HIGHEST redundancy and availability?
A. Cloud-based storage
B. Storage Area Network
C. Locally attached storage
D. Network Attached Storage
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You work as a computer technician. When you start your computer, you find that the computer\\’s CMOS battery has
failed. You replace the CMOS battery.
What will be your next step after replacing the CMOS battery?
A. Run the DEFRAG utility.
B. Create a partition on the hard disk drive.
C. Run the SCANDISK utility.
D. Reboot the computer and set the date and time.
Correct Answer: D
When a computer\\’s CMOS battery is replaced, the system clock of the computer is reset. Therefore, your next step
after replacing the CMOS battery will be to reboot the computer and to set the date and time.
What is a CMOS battery? Hide
A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It provides backup to
CMOS to store computer hardware configuration, date, and time settings when a computer\\’s main power is off. Note:
Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. Answer option C is incorrect. SCANDISK
is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also
checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a
computer.
Answer option A is incorrect. DEFRAG is a system utility used to consolidate the fragmented files stored on the hard
disk of a computer. The fragmented files are those files that are saved or stored in different locations of the hard disk.
The tool arranges such files and stores them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks. The operating system can access these
files at a faster rate than the fragmented ones. Answer option B is incorrect. Creating a partition on the hard disk drive
has nothing to do with the issue.
Reference: TechNet, Contents: “Chapter 21 – Troubleshooting Startup and Disk Problems”
QUESTION 16
Which of the following would BEST be described as password best practices? (Select THREE).
A. Use of long passwords
B. Sharing passwords with a trusted source
C. Limiting password reuse
D. Keeping default passwords
E. Use of special characters
F. Writing down difficult passwords
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the BEST reason to change a wireless router\\’s default SSID?
A. To make it easier to identify in a location with several routers.
B. To make the network feel more personal.
C. To make it more difficult to join.
D. To make the network secure.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
A user, Joe, is concerned about the safety of his personal information on a website.
Which of the following can Joe look for to ensure that his personal information is not at risk? (Select TWO).
A. HTTP on the browser address bar
B. Suspicious ads in the browser
C. HTTPS on the browser address bar
D. A lock symbol on the browser address bar
E. The word secure in the browser address bar
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
Several users want to share a common folder with high availability.
Which of the following devices is BEST to use for this requirement?
A. Large USB flash drive connected to a PC
B. Medium capacity SATA hard drive
C. Network attached storage appliance
D. Firewall with security management
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
A user wants to update a driver for additional features.
Where would the user find a current version of the driver from an official source?
A. Manufacturer\\’s CD/DVD that came with the computer
B. Manufacturer\\’s web site
C. Internet community support forums
D. Third-party support web sites
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which of the following types of attacks entices a user to disclose personal information such as social security number,
bank account details, or credit card number?
A. Password guessing attack
B. Spoofing
C. Phishing
D. Replay attack
Correct Answer: C
Phishing is a type of scam that entice a user to disclose personal information such as social security number, bank
account details, or credit card number. An example of phishing attack is a fraudulent e-mail that appears to come from a
user\\’s bank asking to change his online banking password. When the user clicks the link available on the e-mail, it
directs him to a phishing site which replicates the original bank site. The phishing site lures the user to provide his
personal information. Answer option B is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have
come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies
packet headers by using someone else\\’s IP address to his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing
the Internet, chatting on- line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected.
Answer option D is incorrect. Replay attack is a type of attack in which attackers capture packets containing passwords
or digital signatures whenever packets pass between two hosts on a network. In an attempt to obtain an authenticated
connection, the attackers then resend the captured packet to the system. Answer option A is incorrect. A password
guessing attack occurs when an unauthorized user tries to log on repeatedly to a computer or network by guessing
usernames and passwords. Many password guessing programs that attempt to break passwords are available on the
Internet. Following are the types of password guessing attacks: Brute force attack Dictionary attack Reference:
“http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing”
QUESTION 22
Which of the following functions can transfer a file between folders and deletes it from the original folder?
A. Edit
B. Move
C. Copy
D. Paste
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which of the following is the function of a CPU?
A. Encrypts data for remote transmission
B. Performs data computation
C. Supplies electricity to components
D. Provides storage location for files
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which of the following application types is MOST often used for doing a mail merge?
A. PDF software
B. Word processor
C. Presentation software
D. Personal information manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following are considered input devices for a computer? (Select TWO).
A. Mouse
B. Printer
C. Speakers
D. Microphone
E. Monitor
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 26
Which of the following connectors supports both high definition video and audio?
A. S-video
B. Component
C. HDMI
D. DVI
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which of the following are types of Random Access Memory (RAM) ? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. EDO RAM
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. VRAM
E. NRAM
Correct Answer: ABD
These are the type of Random Access Memory: DRAM EDO RAM SRAM VRAM What is the function of DRAM? Hide
Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for computers and workstations. It requires
having its storage cells refreshed or given a new electronic charge every few milliseconds. What is an EDO RAM? Hide
EDO RAM stands for Extended Data Out RAM. It is a type of memory, which improves performance of the computer by
eliminating memory wait states. What is the function of SRAM? Hide Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for
a computer\\’s cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card.
Unlike DRAM, SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power
is being supplied. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. What is VRAM? Hide VRAM, also
known as Video RAM, is used to store image data for processing by the video adapter. It is the memory that stores
information about the pictures that display on the monitor screen. Answer option E is incorrect. There is no RAM such
as NRAM.
QUESTION 28
Which of the following defines why backup verification is important?
A. To ensure that the backup runs as quickly as possible
B. To ensure that the backup can be stored indefinitely
C. To ensure that the backup can be saved to the cloud
D. To ensure that the backup contains usable data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which of the following devices has a 15-pin 3 row connector?
A. Joystick port
B. VGA monitor
C. Parallel port
D. Serial port
Correct Answer: B
The VGA monitor uses a 15-pin 3 row connector to connect to a video adapter. Older Color Graphic
Array (CGA) video standard monitors use 9- pin connectors to connect to DB-9 female connectors on CGA adapters.
Answer option D is incorrect. Serial port is the primary means for connecting modems and mouse to a computer. There
are two types of serial port connectors, 9-pin and 25-pin. The word serial refers to the that data is sent in series, one bit
at
a time, over a single wire. This design is significantly slower than sending 8 bits at a time via a parallel channel, but
serial signals can travel much farther without degradation. Answer option A is incorrect. The joystick port has a 15-pin 2
row
male connector. Answer option C is incorrect. A parallel port is a 25-pin 2 row female connector on the back of a PC.
It is used to connect printers, scanners, etc. A parallel port transfers information between computers and peripheral
devices 8 bits at a time.
ECP, EPP, and SPP are types of parallel ports.
QUESTION 30
An employee is using a desk phone that is connected only via a network cable.
Which of the following technologies is the phone using?
A. LTE
B. GSM
C. VoIP
D. CDMA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following extension types are associated with document files? (Select THREE).
A. .txt
B. .odf
C. .msi
D. .rtf
E. .mp3
F. .tar
G. .jpg
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 32
Which of the following items require ESD precautions?
A. Upgrading to a new touch screen monitor
B. Adding a micro SD card to a smartphone
C. Installing an compact flash card into a laptop
D. Replacing RAM in a personal computer
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which of the following ports support hot swapping?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. USB
B. Parallel
C. Serial
D. IEEE 1394
Correct Answer: AD
USB and IEEE 1394 ports support hot swapping.
What is USB?
Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and
Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot
plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port
can be used to connect up to
127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data
transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480
Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1.
What is IEEE 1394?
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial bus that provides
enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components,
traditional PC
storage devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. Answer options C and B are incorrect.
Serial and parallel ports do not support hot swapping or hot plugging.
QUESTION 34
Which of the following are removable storage devices/media?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. CD-ROM
B. SD card
C. Hard disk drive
D. USB Pen drive
Correct Answer: ABD
CD-ROM, SD card, USB Pen drive, floppy disk, etc., are removable storage media. CD-ROM (Compact Disc Read-Only
Memory) is a type of removable storage optical media. It can store up to 1GB of data, although most common CD-
ROMs store 700MB of data. It comes in a standard size and format, so users can load any type of CD-ROM into any CD
drive or CD-ROM player. Once data is written to a CD-ROM, it cannot be erased or changed. SD card is a removable
storage device. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format used in portable devices such as mobile
phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards are based on the older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but
they are a little thicker than MMC cards. Generally an SD card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards
generally measure 32 mm x 24 mm x 2.1 mm, but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots
can use the thinner MMC cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards are
also available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity ports such
as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port. USB Pen drive is a removable storage device. A pen drive is also
known as a USB flash drive. It is a small device used to transfer data from one computer to another through USB ports.
Pen drives are available in various capacities. When a pen drive is plugged into the USB port, Windows Explorer shows
it as a removable drive. Answer option C is incorrect. The hard disk drive is not a removable storage media. It is
installed inside the computer case. It can store large amounts of data and provides fast read/write performance. HDD
can be connected to a computer with the Integrated Device Electronics (IDE), Small Computer System Interface (SCSI),
and SATA interface. It consists of inflexible platters coated with material in which data is recorded magnetically with
read/write heads. Note: Only external hard disk drives are removable devices.
QUESTION 35
A laptop owner, Ann, can no longer see web pages when she opens her browser, and she can only see her search bars
and plug-ins. Which of the following is the MOST likely source of this issue?
A. The computer does not have current antivirus software installed
B. The computer needs to have its components upgraded
C. The downloaded toolbars are filling the browser screen
D. The owner was not using complex passwords
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which of the following is considered an optical storage medium?
A. SSD
B. Blu-Ray
C. Flash drive
D. Memory card
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
A user wants to run a major update on a laptop. Which of the following should be considered before running any major
updates?
A. Restore folders from back up
B. Change administrator account password
C. Back up important folders
D. Print all personal documents
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A user is at the office and has a cellular phone that previously functioned properly. The phone is powered on with a fully
charged battery. However, the phone does not have connectivity.
Which of the following describes the problem?
A. Phone is disconnected from WiFi
B. Provider is conducting system testing
C. MAC address is bad
D. Phone is in airplane mode
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Which of the following software package types is designed to accept input from multiple users?
A. Utility
B. Operating system
C. Specialized
D. Collaborative
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
You have an older Windows 98 computer. You wish to upgrade to Windows Vista Home Basic. What must you do?
A. First upgrade to Windows 2000 then upgrade to Vista Home Basic.
B. First upgrade to Windows XP Pro, then upgrade to Vista Home Basic.
C. Simply buy and install the Windows Vista Home Basic Upgrade.
D. First upgrade to Windows XP Home, then upgrade to Vista Home Basic.
Correct Answer: D
You will have to first upgrade to Windows XP home, and then to Vista Home. Answer option C is incorrect. Windows 98
cannot be directly upgraded to Windows Vista. Answer option B is incorrect. Windows XP professional cannot be
upgraded to Windows Vista Home Basic, but it can be upgraded to Windows Vista Business or Ultimate. Answer option
A is incorrect. Windows 2000 cannot be upgraded to Windows Vista. Reference:
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/931225
The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the essential IT skills and knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and entry-level IT professionals alike, including:
Using features and functions of common operating systems and establishing network connectivity
Identifying common software applications and their purpose
Using security and web browsing best practices
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