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Free test Cisco Field Engineer 500-490 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Which two activities should occur during an SE\\'s demo process? (Choose two.) A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up. B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you. C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration. D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case. E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and complexity. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 2 Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the fabric? A. edge nodes B. control plane nodes C. intermediate nodes D. border nodes Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three.) A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics C. Apple Insights D. VXLAN support E. Proactive approach to guided remediation F. Network time travel Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 4 Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.) A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy and application visibility Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5 Which are two advantages of a "one switch at a time" approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing brownfield environment? (Choose two.) A. appropriate for campus and remote site environment B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover C. ideal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware D. involves the least risk of all approaches E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities F. allows simplified roll back Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 6 Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.) A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo innovation. B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations. C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details. D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach. E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 7 What are the three foundational elements required for the new operational paradigm? (Choose three.) A. centralization B. assurance C. application QoS D. multiple technologies at multiple OSI layers E. policy-based automated provisioning of network F. fabric Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 8 Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform? A. single sign-on B. IPv6 transport (WAN) C. 2-factor authentication D. license enforcement E. reporting F. non-Ethernet interfaces Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10 What should you do if you are looking at a strategic win with a customer and the customer wants to examine Cisco ISE for longer than a few weeks? A. Give them some of our flash files that can be played on any browser. B. Set them up with an account on a Cisco UCS server that hosts ISE. C. Set them up with a dCloud account. D. Give them our ISE YouTube videos. E. Provide them with a downloadable POV lit. F. Point them to our dCloud demo library. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.) A. use of overlays B. use of Virtual Network IDs C. focus on user endpoints D. use of group policy E. use of Endpoint Groups F. use of Scalable Group Tags Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12 Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal? A. vBond orchestrator B. vManage C. vSmart controller D. vEdge Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which Cisco vEdge router offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput? A. Cisco vEdge 5000 B. Cisco vEdge 1000 C. Cisco vEdge 2000 D. Cisco vEdge 100 Correct Answer: A
We share 13 of the latest Cisco Field Engineer 500-490 exam dumps and 500-490 pdf online download for free.Now you know what you're capable of! If you're just interested in this, please keep an eye on “Meetexams.com” blog updates! If you want to get the Cisco Field Engineer 500-490 Exam Certificate: https://www.leads4pass.com/500-490.html (Total questions: 35 Q&A).
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We share the latest exam dumps throughout the year to help you improve your skills and experience! The latest Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 exam dumps, online exam Practice test to test your strength, Cisco 400-201 "CCIE Service Provider Study Materials" in https://www.leads4pass.com/400-201.html Update the exam content throughout the year to ensure that all exam content is authentic and valid. 400-201 PDF Online download for easy learning.
The CCIE Service Provider exam validate professionals who have the expertise to design, implement, diagnose, and troubleshoot complex Service Provider highly available network infrastructure and services based on dual stack solutions (IPv4 and IPv6); understand how the network and service components interoperate; and understand the functional requirements and translate into specific device configurations.
Free test Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 In Ethernet Aggregation applications, which option is needed when the U-PE connects to an N-PE and broadband remote access server? A. Ethernet Multipoint Service B. E1 C. VPLS D. DSLAM E. wire emulation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 What does UDLD stand for? A. UniDirectional Loop Detection B. Unspecified Distribution Label Detection C. Unified Distribution Label Direction D. UniDirectional Link Detection Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS on its network. The ISP is currently redesigning the network, to improve performance and convergence. Which two IS-IS features meet the ISP requirements when changes happen on the network? (Choose two.) A. IP Event Dampening B. Bidirectional Forwarding failure detection C. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters D. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP generation exponential backoff timers E. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs Correct Answer: DE Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_isis/configuration/15-s/irs-15-s-book/irs-fscnt.html
QUESTION 4 Which two characteristics are benefits of MPLS LDP lossless MD5 session authentication? (Choose two.) A. It allows for asymmetric passwords. B. It uses the MPLS LDP targeted hello, which is authenticated, instead of the regular MPLS LDP hello, which cannot be authenticated. C. It allows you to achieve or change LDP MD5 session authentication without interrupting the LDP session. D. It uses the MD5 method, which is a more secure authentication method than traditional MPLS LDP authentication, which uses a cleartext method. E. It enables authentication for UDP MPLS LDP discovery packets as well as TCP MPLS LDP label exchange sessions. Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_ldp_lossless_md5.pdf
QUESTION 5 A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that the service level agreement has been honored? A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 6 Which statement about provider-independent and provider-assigned address blocks is true? A. There is no difference. B. PI space is not globally routable and can be used as private addressing. C. PA space is globally routable and can be obtained from IANA by all organizations. D. PA space is assigned by the ISP and PI space is assigned by the regional registry. Both are globally routable. E. PI and PA blocks are both assigned by the regional registry to all organizations. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which protocol provides an alternative to the STP, which provides a way to control network loops, handle link failures, and improve convergence time and can coexist with STP? A. PBB-EVPN B. IEEE 802.1ah C. Flex links D. E-TREE E. REP Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8 IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6 multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it? A. IGMP snooping B. MLD snooping C. MLD querier D. IGMP version 3 E. MLD version 2 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R2 have exchanged label binding information. What is preventing the labels from populating the MPLS forwarding table? A. MTU on the serial interface cannot accommodate labels. B. Cisco Express Forwarding is not running. C. The MPLS label distribution protocol is mismatched. D. Inbound access list 100 is applied on the serial interface. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which two options describe how 6RD compares to automatic 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two.) A. 6RD provides a controlled exit point from the IPv6 Internet. B. 6RD provides a controlled entry point to the IPv6 Internet. C. 6RD is widely available in current OS implementations. D. Automatic 6to4 tunneling is widely available in current OS implementations. E. Automatic 6to4 tunneling and 6RD use a well-known IPv6 prefix. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit AS 200 uses the CSC solution provided by AS 100 with regards to the packets originated on ABC- Site2 going toward to ABC-Site1, how many labels are in the label stack of these packets when they cross the link between CSC-PE2 and CS-P? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which two factors are significant drivers for 5G in IoT networks? (Choose two.) A. Programmability B. Energy Efficiency C. Mass Connectivity D. Higher data rates E. Lower Latency Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which physical interface provides the clock information? A. Gi0/4 B. Gi0/11 C. Gi0/10 D. Gi0/5 Correct Answer: C
We share 13 of the latest Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 exam dumps and 400-201 pdf online download for free.Now you know what you're capable of! If you're just interested in this, please keep an eye on “Meetexams.com” blog updates! If you want to get the Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Exam Certificate: https://www.leads4pass.com/400-201.html (Total questions: 845 Q&A).
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Latest effective Cisco 300-320 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 When designing data centers for multitenancy, which two benefits are provided by the implementation of VSAN and zoning? (choose two) A. VSAN provides a means of restricting visibility and connectivity among devices connected to a zone B. VSANs have their own set of services and address space, which prevents an issue in one VSAN from affecting others C. Zones provide the ability to create many logical SAN fabrics on a single Cisco MDS 9100 family switch D. VSANs and zones use separate fabrics E. Zones allow an administrator to control which initiators can see which targets Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 2 While configuring a QoS policy, analysis of the switching infrastructure indicates that the switches support 1P3Q3T egress queuing. Which option describes the egress queuing in the infrastructure? A. The threshold configuration allows for inter-queue QoS by utilizing buffers. B. The priority queue must contain real-time traffic and network management traffic. C. The 1P3Q3T indicates one priority queue, three standard queues, and three thresholds. D. The priority queue should use less than 20% of the total bandwidth. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which three authentication services are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.) A. RADIUS B. LDAP C. Kerberos D. TACACS+ E. local F. SNMP Correct Answer: ABC Working with Existing Backend Authentication Servers When working with existing backend authentication servers, Cisco supports the following authentication protocol types: Kerberos RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) Windows NT (NTLM Auth Server) LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/nac/appliance/configuration_guide/47/cam/ 47cam-book/m_auth.html
QUESTION 4 Design for data center where you don\\'t have to dedicate one switch per rack? A. Top of rack B. End of row C. Blade Switch D. Middle of row Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are two advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two) A. Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows load balancing between redundant paths. B. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning. C. Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame. D. Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products. E. Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy Ethernet in all campus networks. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 Which four primary attributes define a WAN service? (Choose four.) A. bandwidth B. bursting capacity C. memory D. CPU E. QoS classes and policies F. latency G. multicast support Correct Answer: ABEG
QUESTION 7 Which command can you enter to inject BGP routes into an IGP? A. redistribute bgp B. redistribute static C. redistribute static subnet D. default-information originate Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.An engineer must apply IP addressing to five new WAN sites and choses the new subnets pictured. The previous administrator applied the addressing at Headquarters. Whitch option is the minimum summary range to cover the existing WAN sites while also allowing for three additional WAN sites of the same size, for future growth? A. 10.0.60.0/18 B. 10.0.64.0/21 C. 10.0.64.0/17 D. 10.0.0.0/17 E. 10.0.64.0/18 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9 What QoS technology allows traffic to pass even though it has exceeded the bandwidth limit but will be queued later? A. Shaping B. Policing C. Weighted Fair Queuing D. Low Latency Queuing Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 An engineer is redesigning the infrastructure for a campus environment. The engineer must maximize the use of the links between the core and distribution layers. By which two methods can this usage be maximized? (Choose two.) A. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use RPVSTP+ B. Design with multiple unequal-cost links between the core and distribution layers. C. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use an IGP D. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use HSRP. E. Design with multiple equal-cost links between the core and distribution layers. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 11 An CSPF router should have a maximum of how many adjacent neighbors? A. 80 B. 60 C. 100 D. 50 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 DRAG DROP Drag and Drop question with regards to Cisco Application-Centric Infrastructure ACI . Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 What is the preferred protocol for a router that is running an IPv4 and IPv6 dual stack configuration? A. IPX B. microsoft Netbios C. IPv6 D. IPv4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Which one of these could you implement to sustain a large DDoS attack? A. Stateful firewall B. uRPF C. Connections limits and timeouts D. Access-lists Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct? A. N_Port to N_Port connections use logical node connection points. B. Flow control is only provided by QoS. C. It must be implemented in an arbitrated loop. D. Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus. Correct Answer: A Fibre Channel supports a logical node connection point between node ports (N_ports). This is similar to TCP and UDP sockets.
QUESTION 16 What location are security policies enforced in ACI? A. End Point B. Spine C. Leaf D. APIC Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 L2 extention through IP in the data center (MAC-in-IP) A. fiberpath B. TRILL C. OTV D. Vxlan Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18 What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management? A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management. B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage. C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network. D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.) A. multicast routing uses RPF. B. multicast routing is connectionless. C. In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known. D. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path E. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather than just one destination Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20 Which statement about the ToR design model is true? A. It can shorten cable runs and simplify rack connectivity. B. Each ToR switch must be individually managed. C. Multiple ToR switches can be interconnected to provide a loop-free spanning-tree infrastructure. D. It can connect servers that are located in separate racks. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 Which Cisco feature can be run on a Cisco router that terminates a WAN connection, to gather and provide WAN circuit information that helps switchover to dynamically back up the WAN circuit? A. Cisco Express Forwarding B. IP SLA C. passive interface D. traffic shaping Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 A company needs to configure a new firewall and have only one public IP address to use in this firewall. The engineer need to configure the firewall with NAT to handle inbound traffic to the mail server in addition to internet outbound traffic.Which options could he use ? (Choose Two) A. Static NAT for inbound traffic on port 25 B. Dynamic NAT for outbound traffic C. Static NAT for outbound traffic on port 25 D. Dynamic NAT for inbound traffic E. NAT overload for outbound traffic F. NAT overload for inboud traffic on port 25 Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 23 Which two key components are related to one firewall per ISP design option for e-commerce? (Choose two.) A. It is a common approach to single-homing. B. This approach is commonly used in large sites. C. Any failure on an edge router results in a loss of session. D. It has one NAT to two ISP-assigned blocks. E. It is difficult to set up and administer. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 24 Which technology should a network designer combine with VSS to ensure a loop free topology with optimal convergence time? A. Portfast B. UplinkFast C. RPVST + D. Mulitchassis EtherChannel Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25 A Network administrator want to increase the security level in the core layer and want to confirm that the users that have their default GW on an interface in the core switch can access specific networks and can\\'t access the remaining networks. Which feature can help him to achieve this? A. vlan access control list B. https://www.leads4pass.com/300-320.html C. https://www.leads4pass.com/300-320.html D. https://www.leads4pass.com/300-320.html Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 A company have single ASA hardware box and they need to separate company departments in way that they can apply different rules on them, ACL, NAT, and so on... Which mode is needed? A. routed mode B. transparent mode C. multiple context mode D. active failover mode Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27 ` the rule on the left to match the appropriate activity on the right. Select and Place:Correct Answer:
QUESTION 28 DRAG DROP Select and Place:Correct Answer: Enable specifically at the network edge >STP Manually prune unused VLANs >Trunks Use specifically on fiber-optic interconnections that link switches >UDLD Ensure that an individual link failure will not result in an STP failure >Etherchannel Always use a number of links that is a power of 2 (2, 4, 8) to optimize the load balancing of traffic> VSS
QUESTION 29 A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network. Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task? A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint. B. Configure QoS in all links. C. Configure a new NET address. D. Configure the links as point-to-point. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30 An engineer is designing a multi cluster bgp network, each cluster has 2 RRs and 4 RR clients which 2 options must be considered? A. Clients from all clusters should peer with all RRs B. All route reflectors should be non client peers and topology partially meshed C. All RRs must be non client peers in a fully meshed topology D. Clients must not peer with IBGP speakers outside the client router E. Clients should peer with at least one other client outside it\\'s cluster Correct Answer: DE Route reflectors must still be fully IBGP meshed with nonclients. Therefore, route reflectors reduce meshing within clusters, but all mesh links outside the cluster must be maintained on the route reflector. The route reflector clients get information from IBGP speakers outside the cluster via the route reflector.
QUESTION 31 What is an advantage of using the VPC feature in data center environment ? A. All available uplinks bandwidth is used. B. FHRP is not required C. A single IP is used for management of both devices D. The two switches form a single control plane Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32 What command essentially turns on auto summarization for EIGRP? A. area 0 range 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0.0 B. router eigrp 1 C. ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 D. ip summary-address 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 E. eigrp stub Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33 An engineer has an implemented a QOS architecture that requires a signaling protocol to tell routers which flows of packets require special treatment. Which two mechanisms are important to establish and maintaining QOS architecture? (choose two) A. classification B. tagging C. packet scheduling D. admission control E. resource reservation Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 34 A customer with a single Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance wants to separate multiple segments of the e-commerce network to allow for different security policies. What firewall technology accommodates these design requirements? A. Routed mode B. Virtual-context C. Transparent mode D. Virtual private network E. private VLANs F. admission control Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35 OTV to interconnect three data centers and what should there be in each data center A. VTEP B. vxlan ? Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 A customer requires resiliency and availability for applications hosted in the data center. What two technologies meet this requirement? (Choose two) A. SLB B. LTM C. GLBP D. GTM E. HSRP Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37 Which option prevents the dropping of asymmetrically routed packets in active/active failover paired firewalls? A. Nothing can be done to prevent this from happening. B. Configure different policies on both firewalls. C. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to the same asymmetric routing group. D. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to a different asymmetric routing group. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38 Which two options regarding the Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tag are true? (Choose two) A. It is assigned by the Cisco ISE to the user or endpoint session upon login B. Best practice dictates it should be statically created on the switch C. It is removed by the Cisco ISE before reaching the endpoint. D. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a guest group allowing access to minimal services E. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a security group for common services such as DNS and DHCP Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 39 In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 4 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40 When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer? A. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks Correct Answer: A
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Latest effective Cisco 300-209 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which header is used when a data plane IPsec packet is created? A. IKEv1 B. AES C. SHA D. ESP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE? A. 3DES B. AES C. DES D. RSA Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two operational advantages does GetVPN offer over site-to-site IPsec tunnel in a private MPLS-based core network? (Choose two.) A. Key servers perform encryption and decryption of all the data in the network, which allows for tight security policies. B. Traffic uses one VRF to encrypt data and a different on to decrypt data, which allows for multicast traffic isolation. C. GETVPN is tunnel-less, which allows any group member to perform decryption and routing around network failures. D. Packets carry original source and destination IP addresses, which allows for optimal routing of encrypted traffic. E. Group Domain of Interpretation protocol allows for homomorphic encryption, which allows group members to operate on messages without decrypting them Correct Answer: CD http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/group-encrypted-transport- vpn/deployment_guide_c07_554713.html
QUESTION 4 An engineer must set up DMPN Phase2 with EIGRP to ensure spoke-to-spoke communication. Which two EIGRP features must be disabled? A. stub routing B. split horizon C. route redistribution D. auto-summary E. next-hop self Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 Which command clears all Cisco AnyConnect VPN sessions on a Cisco ASA? A. vpn-sessiondb logoff anyconnect B. vpn-sessiondb logoff webvpn C. clear crypto isakmp sa D. vpn-sessiondb logoff l2l Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which two option, are benefits of AES compared to 3DES? (Choose two.) A. switches encryption keys every 32 GB of data transfer B. faster encryption C. shorter encryption keys D. longer encryption block length E. repeating encryption keys Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7 The Cisco AnyConnect client is unable to download an updated user profile from the ASA headend using IKEv2. What is the most likely cause of this problem? A. User profile updates are not allowed with IKEv2. B. IKEv2 is not enabled on the group policy. C. A new profile must be created so that the adaptive security appliance can push it to the client on the next connection attempt. D. Client Services is not enabled on the adaptive security appliance. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A company has acquired a competitor whose network infrastructure uses only IPv6. An engineer must configure VPN access sourced from the new company. Which remote access VPN solution must be used? A. GET VPN B. Any Connect C. EzVPN D. DMVPN Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 What does DART stand for? A. Device and report tool B. Diagnostic Anyconnect Reporting Tool C. Delivery and Reporting Tool D. Diagnostics and Reporting Tool Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which option describes the purpose of the shared argument in the DMVPN interface command tunnel protection IPsec profile ProfileName shared? A. shares a single profile between multiple tunnel interfaces B. allows multiple authentication types to be used on the tunnel interface C. shares a single profile between a tunnel interface and a crypto map D. shares a single profile between IKEv1 and IKEv2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Using the Next Generation Encryption technologies, which is the minimum acceptable encryption level to protect sensitive information? A. AES 92 bits B. AES 128 bits C. AES 256 bits D. AES 512 bits Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel?A. incorrect PSK B. crypto access list mismatch C. incorrect tunnel group D. crypto policy mismatch E. incorrect certificate Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 You have been using pre-shared keys for IKE authentication on your VPN. Your network has grown rapidly, and now you need to create VPNs with numerous IPsec peers. How can you enable scaling to numerous IPsec peers? A. Migrate to external CA-based digital certificate authentication. B. Migrate to a load-balancing server. C. Migrate to a shared license server. D. Migrate from IPsec to SSL VPN client extended authentication. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN? A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 A company has a Flex VPN solution for remote access and one of their Cisco any Connect remote clients is having trouble connecting property. Which command verifies that packets are being encrypted and decrypted? A. show crypto session active B. show crypto ikev2 stats C. show crypto ikev1 sa D. show crypto ikev2 sa E. show crypto session detail Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16 Which option is one of the difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN? A. flexvpn uses ikev2 and dmvpn can use ikev1 or ikev2 B. dmvpn can use ikev1 and ikev2 where flexvpn only uses ikev1 C. flexvpn can use ikev1 and ikev2 where dmvpn uses only ikev2 D. dmvp uses ikev1 and flexvpn use ikev3 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 An IOS SSL VPN is configured to forward TCP ports. A remote user cannot access the corporate FTP site with a Web browser. What is a possible reason for the failure? A. The user\\'s FTP application is not supported. B. The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Thin Client Mode. C. The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Tunnel Mode. D. The user\\'s operating system is not supported. Correct Answer: B http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ssl-vpn-client/70664-IOSthinclient.html Thin-Client SSL VPN (Port Forwarding) A remote client must download a small, Java-based applet for secure access of TCP applications that use static port numbers. UDP is not supported. Examples include access to POP3, SMTP, IMAP, SSH, and Telnet. The user needs local administrative privileges because changes are made to files on the local machine. This method of SSL VPN does not work with applications that use dynamic port assignments, for example, several FTP applications.
QUESTION 18 Which protocol must be enabled on the inside interface to use cluster encryption in SSL VPN load balancing? A. TLS B. DTLS C. IKEv2 D. ISAKMP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 An engineer is configuring SSL VPN for remote access. A real-time application that is sensitive to packet delays will be used. Which feature should the engineer confirm is enabled to avoid latency and bandwidth problems associated with SSL connections? A. DTLS B. DPD C. SVC D. IKEv2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 A temporary worker must use clientless SSL VPN with an SSH plug-in, in order to access the console of an internal corporate server, the projects.xyz.com server. For security reasons, the network security auditor insists that the temporary user is restricted to the one internal corporate server, 10.0.4.18. You are the network engineer who is responsible for the network access of the temporary user. What should you do to restrict SSH access to the one projects.xyz.com server? A. Configure access-list temp_user_acl extended permit TCP any host 10.0.4.18 eq 22. B. Configure access-list temp_user_acl standard permit host 10.0.4.18 eq 22. C. Configure access-list temp_acl webtype permit url ssh://10.0.4.18. D. Configure a plug-in SSH bookmark for host 10.0.4.18, and disable network browsing on the clientless SSL VPN portal of the temporary worker. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21 Refer to the exhibit. Which VPN solution does this configuration represent?
A. Cisco AnyConnect B. IPsec C. L2TP D. SSL VPN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 Which two GDOI encryption keys are used within a GET VPN network? (Choose two.) A. key encryption key B. group encryption key C. user encryption key D. traffic encryption key Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23 Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the count of all active VPN sessions? A. show vpn-sessiondb summary B. show crypto ikev1 sa C. show vpn-sessiondb ratio encryption D. show iskamp sa detail E. show crypto protocol statistics all Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial configuration shown, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) crypto ipsec transform-set MY_TRANSFORM esp-aes 128 esp-sha-hmac! crypto ipsec profile MYPROFILE set transform-set MY_TRANSFORM ! interface Tunnel0 ip unnumbered GigabitEthernet1/1 tunnel source GigabitEthernet1/1 tunnel destination 192.168.2.200 tunnel mode ipsec ipv4 tunnel protection ipsec profile MYPROFILE! ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel0 A. The tunnel will use the routing protocol configured for GigabitEthemet 1/1 for all tunnel communication with the peer. B. The IP route statement to reach the remote network behind the DMVPN peer is incorrect, it should be ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 tunnel 0. C. This is an example of a static point-to-point VTI tunnel. D. The tunnel will use esp-sha-hmac encryption in ESP tunnel mode. E. The tunnel will use 128-bit AES encryption in ESP tunnel mode. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 25 Which option describes the purpose of the command show derived-config interface virtual-access 1? A. It verifies that the virtual access interface is cloned correctly with per-user attributes. B. It verifies that the virtual template created the tunnel interface. C. It verifies that the virtual access interface is of type Ethernet. D. It verifies that the virtual access interface is used to create the tunnel interface. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 What URL do you use to download a packet capture file in a format which can be used by a packet analyzer? A. ftp:///capture// B. https://// C. https:///admin/capture//pcap D. https:////pcap Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27 Which two statements about the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN solution are true? (Choose two.) A. When a client connects to the Cisco ASA WebVPN portal and tries to access HTTP resources through the URL bar, the client uses the local DNS to perform FQDN resolution. B. The rewriter enable command under the global webvpn configuration enables the rewriter functionality because that feature is disabled by default. C. A Cisco ASA with an AnyConnect Premium Peers license can simultaneously allow Clientless SSL VPN sessions and AnyConnect client sessions. D. Content rewriter functionality in the Clientless SSL VPN portal is not supported on Apple mobile devices. E. Clientless SSLVPN provides Layer 3 connectivity into the secured network. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 28 Which feature is enabled by the use of NHRP in a DMVPN network? A. host routing with Reverse Route Injection B. BGP multiaccess C. host to NBMA resolution D. EIGRP redistribution Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29 Which Cisco IOS VPN feature simplifies IPsec VPN configuration and design by using on- demand virtual access interfaces that are cloned from a virtual template configuration? A. GET VPN B. dynamic VTI C. static VTI D. GRE tunnels E. GRE over IPsec tunnels F. DMVPN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30 Which command clears all crypto configuration from a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance? A. clear configure crypto B. clear configure crypto ipsec C. clear crypto map D. clear crypto ikev2 sa Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 Which VPN feature allows remote access clients to print documents to local network printers? A. Reverse Route Injection B. split tunneling C. loopback addressing D. dynamic virtual tunnels Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 Which technology can rate-limit the number of tunnels on a DMVPN hub when system utilization is above a specified percentage? A. NHRP Event Publisher B. interface state control C. CAC D. NHRP Authentication E. ip nhrp connect Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33 When initiating a new SSL or TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. After validating the server certificate, what does the client use the certificate for? A. The client and server use the server public key to encrypt the SSL session data. B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client decrypts the session key by using the server public key. C. The client and server switch to a DH key exchange to establish a session key. D. The client generates a random session key, encrypts it with the server public key, and then sends it to the server. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34 Which three actions can be applied to a traffic class within a type inspect policy map? (Choose three.) A. drop B. priority C. log D. pass E. inspect F. reset Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 35 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is running DMVPN with EIGRP, when the administrator looks at the routing table on spoken 1 it displays a route to the hub only. Which command is missing on the hub router, which includes spoke 2 and spoke 3 in the spoke 1 routing table?
A. no inverse arp B. neighbor (ip address) C. no ip split-horizon egrp 1 D. redistribute static Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36 A company\\'s remote locations connect to data centers via MPLS. A new request requires that unicast traffic that exist the remote location be encrypted. Which no tunneled technology can be used to satisfy this requirement? A. SSL B. GET VPN C. DMVPN D. EzVPN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37 Which type of communication in a FlexVPN implementation uses an NHRP shortcut? A. spoke to hub B. spoke to spoke C. hub to spoke D. hub to hub Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38 Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken when Cisco AnyConnect cannot establish an IKEv2 connection, while SSL works fine? (Choose two.) A. Verify that the primary protocol on the client machine is set to IPsec. B. Verify that AnyConnect is enabled on the correct interface. C. Verify that the IKEv2 protocol is enabled on the group policy. D. Verify that ASDM and AnyConnect are not using the same port. E. Verify that SSL and IKEv2 certificates are not referencing the same trustpoint. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit. The IKEv2 tunnel between Router1 and Router2 is failing during session establishment. Which action will allow the session to establish correctly?
A. The address command on Router2 must be narrowed down to a /32 mask. B. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be switched. C. The pre-shared key must be altered to use only lowercase letters. D. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be the same. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40 Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.) A. the hashing algorithm B. the authentication method C. the lifetime D. the session key E. the transform-set F. the peer Correct Answer: ABC
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High Quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)
QUESTION 1
The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is unable to call the Cisco IP Video Phone. Assuming that the calling search space has been configured correctly, which of the these can cause this issue?
A. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered to a Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server.
B. A multipoint control unit is required in order for the call to work.
C. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered as a SIP endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. H.323 is not supported.
D. URI dialing has not been configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 Profile 1 > CallSetupMode must be configured as a gateway since Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a gatekeeper functionality.
F. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is not registered as a SIP endpoint on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 needs to be registered as both SIP and H.323.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
An engineer is connecting a VISCA cable. What is the purpose of this cable?
A. to connect camera to codec
B. to connect camera to monitor
C. to connect camera to touch panel
D. to connect camera to network
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
An engineer encounters video quality issues with an endpoint. To capture ongoing call statistics from the CLI, which command should the engineer use?
A. xStatus Call Feature Display
B. xStatus OutgoingVideoChannel Netstat 1
C. xStatus Diagnostics
D. xCommand Diagnose
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
An engineer must ensure that a user can create content playlists for Digital Signs and Show and Share. Which Cisco Digital Media Suite component allows playlists to be created?
A. Cisco DMD
B. Cisco DMM
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco MXE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which two tools can be used to extract traces from a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? 210-065 dumps (Choose two.)
A. RTMT
B. TraceRT
C. Wireshark
D. CLI
E. Syslog
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
A manager requires multiparty video meetings with presentation capability. Which endpoint meets the requirement assuming there is no centralized bridge?
A. Cisco SX20
B. Cisco DX650
C. Cisco 7800
D. Cisco Jabber
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Refer to the Exhibits, in order to create a scheduled or ad-hoc multipoint conference, which two tolls can be used? (Choose two)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
An administrator is troubleshooting an endpoint whose SIP Registration Status shows "Failed: 403 Forbidden" and must obtain information about the cause of the failure. To which two menu locations must an engineer navigate? (Choose two.)
A. Endpoint > Log Files > messages.log
B. Endpoint > Diagnostics > Log Files > all.log
C. VCS > Maintenance > Diagnostics > Incident Reporting > View
D. VCS > Status > logs > Configuration Log
E. VCS > Status > logs > Event Log
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
Which type of lighting is recommended for Cisco TelePresence immersive solutions?
A. point
B. reflective
C. direct
D. indirect
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
A Cisco EX60 is connected to the network, but users cannot make calls and the device is unregistered. The voice engineer configured the device on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two options are causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. SIP URI is not configured correctly.
B. H.323 parameters are not configured correctly.
C. IP address is in a different subnet.
D. No user is associated to a device.
E. SIP proxy is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11
Which desktop endpoint support 802.3af PoE?
A. DX70
B. DX80
C. DX90
D. DX650
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
An engineer is backing up a VCS configuration. Which two methods can be used? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. SFTP
C. SSH
D. web administration
E. local
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 13
An engineer sees a video camera icon on the Cisco IP phone screen status line. Which meaning of this icon is true?
A. The Cisco VT camera is connected to the PC, and the PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone.
B. The Cisco IP phone has web access.
C. The Cisco IP phone is receiving a video call.
D. The Cisco IP phone is configured with video capabilities.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A company just acquired a Cisco MCU 5300 for multi videoconferencing. The networking engineer must create a conference. To which tab does the engineer go to create a conference? 210-065 dumps
A. Endpoints
B. Conferences
C. Network
D. Settings
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In this tutorial the instruction `Go to Conferences > Move participants' means click the Conferences link on the menu bar and then click the Move participants tab.
QUESTION 15
Which option is the Cisco recommended minimum viewing distance for a 52" monitor installed in a video conferencing room?
A. 1.5 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 2.5 m
D. 2.0 m
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which effect of the CLI set audio aec enable command on the immersive Cisco Telepresence system is true?
A. Echo cancellation is enabled.
B. Call economy quality feature is enabled.
C. Noise cancellation is enabled.
D. AEC audio codec is enabled.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
What is the process for resetting a Cisco VCS control appliance back to initial default configuration?
A. Push down and hold the reset button on the back of the VCS appliance for 10 seconds and power cycle the device.
B. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the defaults-reset command.
C. Log into the GUI interface as administrator, choose System Settings, select Restore, select Factory Reset.
D. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the factory-reset command.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Which two Cisco TelePresence endpoints support hosting embedded multisite conferences? (Choose two.)
A. sx20
B. MX800
C. DX70
D. DX80
E. Jabber Video for Cisco TelePresence
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation:
For reference, the below endpoints support Multisite:
MX200/300 G2
MX700/800
SX20/80
QUESTION 19
Which option is the Cisco recommended layout if cascading is being used?
A. Enhanced Continuous Presence
B. Full Participant
C. Continuous Presence
D. Active Speaker
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
When an administrator schedules a conference, which three devices are part of the process? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint
B. Cisco Prime Collaboration Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco Communications Manager
E. MCU appliance
F. Cisco TelePresence Content Server
Correct Answer: BDF
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Best Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist 600-509 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)
QUESTION 1
Which two benefits are achieved through database sharding within the Cisco APIC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. active-standby high availability
B. scalability
C. compression
D. reliability
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
Which overlay protocol does Cisco AVS for vSphere use to allow the ACI fabric to extend over an existing network infrastructure?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. NVGRE
D. VXLAN
E. OTV
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which three main problems was a host overlay system designed to address? (Choose three.)
A. workload mobility
B. simplified and automated workload provisioning
C. multitenancy at scale
D. integrate physical and virtual networking
E. increase visibility to traffic flows
F. better root cause analysis capabilities
G. consolidate IT infrastructure teams
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment,
operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
Which two ACI features assist with application service-level assurance? (Choose two.)
A. tenant health scores
B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service integration
C. Cisco APIC database sharding
D. fabric health scores
E. QoS
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
Which ACI construct provides the policy-based definition that comprises the communication, performance, and security needs of an application?
A. service profile
B. endpoint group
C. application service profile
D. application network profile
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
The use of the Cisco Bi-Di 40G transceiver provides cost effective transition to a 40G ACI fabric through transmission over which cabling plant?
A. Category 6a copper
B. single pair of OM3/OM4 MM fiber
C. single pair of SM fiber
D. Twinax copper
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which method does ACI fabric dynamic load balancing use to provide optimal balancing of flows across the fabric? 600-509 dumps
A. Flows are dynamically allocated according to congestion at the leaf.
B. Flows are dynamically allocated according to hop-by-hop congestion in the fabric.
C. Flows are dynamically allocated according to link BER.
D. Flows are distributed in per packet round-robin.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which four benefits are provided by ACI services to achieve business and technical objectives? (Choose four.)
A. Identify and address technical and operational readiness to effectively deploy this architecture to support your target use cases.
B. Simplify operations through integration at the infrastructure, systems, and management levels.
C. Protect capital and operational investments while gaining a simple transition path from existing environments to architecture based on Cisco ACI.
D. Allow centralized application-based policy automation, programmability, and visibility into physical and virtual networks from a single point of management.
E. Allow centralized management and control over all Cisco platforms and non Cisco platforms.
F. Simplify and reduce the number of applications for better DevOps support.
G. Ability to design, install, and manage access/aggregation/core networks.
H. Emphasize technical objectives to best meet business requirements.
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 10
Which three options are major components of the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)
A. spine switches
B. application network profiles
C. leaf switches
D. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. OpenFlow controller
F. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service devices
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 11
Which four options are important functions offered by the Cisco APIC? (Choose four.)
A. fault and event management
B. hypervisor, storage, and computing management
C. Layer 3 through 5 services integration
D. statistical collection and analysis
E. performance management
F. nonblocking data plane
G. 1.5:1 oversubscribed ports
H. BGP and OSPF routing protocol support
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 12
Before you design an ACI fabric, it is important to understand existing application interactions. If you do not understand them entirely, which approach can you use?
A. Design a classic routing configuration in which everybody can talk to anybody as the equivalent to a contract called "anyany" that all EPGs provide and consume.
B. Design around the Cisco ACI whitelist model using the common tenant, where, by default, two EPGs can communicate to each other in the absence of a contract.
C. Map each EPG to familiar constructs such as VLANs that provide segmentation and will apply policy application interactions.
D. Leverage advanced orchestration tools like Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud or Cisco UCS Director to document existing application interactions.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
You want to satisfy the business, risk, and customer requirements. Which option is a consideration when you select and design an ACI fabric?
A. the requirement for meaningful services (such as traffic load balancing, segmentation, filtering, traffic insertion, and monitoring) for workloads provided by virtual Layer 4 to Layer 7 servers
B. virtual machine mobility because moving from one server to another one would have to occur on the same leaf so that ACI can preserve virtual machine visibility and policy enforcement
C. the breakdown of virtual versus physical workloads because virtual workloads are treated preferentially in ACI
D. the requirement for a central point of management, but no centralized control plane
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What are two key concepts that Cisco onePK addresses in Software-Defined networks? (Choose two.)
A. network programmability
B. separation of control and data planes
C. device/feature abstraction
D. OpenFlow
E. BGP-LS
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
Which four components should be considered when gathering business requirements for a customer project? 600-509 dumps (Choose four.)
A. alignment to corporate goals
B. compliance regulations
C. development team location
D. commitments to customers
E. supplier capabilities
F. business unit providing the developers
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 16
In the Agile software development process, which two principles align with customer communications? (Choose two.)
A. Software releases are held until quality gates are met.
B. Co-location of business-focused individuals and developers for face-to-face conversation is best.
C. Key developers should have a proxy that intercepts rapidly changing requirements.
D. Customer requirements are fully collected before development ensues.
E. Changing requirements are welcome, even late in development.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 17
Which role represents the voice of the customer in the Scrum software development framework?
A. development team
B. Scrum master
C. project wing
D. product owner
E. customer centre
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Which three options are common programmability and automation requirements for the research academia, cloud service providers, and enterprise segments? (Choose three.)
A. network slicing
B. scaling multitenancy
C. resource automation and orchestration
D. harvesting network intelligence
E. service delivery
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19
Which technology is vendor-specific?
A. Cisco onePK
B. OpenFlow
C. BGP-LS
D. OpenStack
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
If the client has equipment from multiple vendors in their network, which statement about the technologies that can be used is true?
A. Cisco onePK is a good candidate because it is vendor agnostic.
B. Cisco onePK is vendor-specific and therefore cannot control all the equipment.
C. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is vendor-specific.
D. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is only for Layer 2 switches.
Correct Answer: B
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Best Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps exam questions and answers (1-20)
QUESTION 1
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode LSP
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 2
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. Anengineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
The 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fix this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS; on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-OS into BGP.
B. Configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only.
C. Configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3.
D. On PE2 and PE3, reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
When a traceroute is performed from a PC behind R2, the next hop on R1 for IPv4 is 10.0.1.2, and for IPv6 it is 2001:DB8:2:2. What is causing thus behavior? 400-201 dumps
A. GigabitEthernet2/1 has a Level 1-only adjacency. This causes it to be the preferred path for the IPv6 packets.
B. When SPF ran on R2, it calculated two equal paths to R1. It was a coincidence that than the packets choose different paths.
C. Multitopology is enabled on R2, which causes the IPv6 packets to use a different path than the IPv4 packets.
D. 2001:DB8:2::2 is on a Gigabit Ethernet interface. Because its speed is higher than Fast Ethernet, the IS-IS metric is preferred.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
Which MPLS TE component keeps track of the flooding and admission control?
A. MPLS TE priorities
B. RSVP
C. link attributes
D. link manager
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which is the main goal of BGPsec regards to improve BGP security?
A. Reduces risk of improper route propagation from unauthorized AS numbers
B. Configures BGP route verification by storing routes in a database used to validate AS numbers
C. Adds encryption to route propagation outside the iBGP AS
D. Increases legitimacy and authenticity of BGP advertisements
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which two models are used in MPLS TE bandwidth constraints? (Choose two)
A. mdm
B. rdm
C. bdm
D. mam
E. tern
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose two)
A. Neutron Layer 3 agent
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Identity Service
D. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9
What are the two benefits of graceful restart? (Choose two)
A. Graceful restart allows session information recovery without disruption to the network.
B. A node can perform a graceful restart to help a neighbor recover its state. The label bindings are kept on state information, which helps the failed node recover faster and does not affect the current forward traffic.
C. Graceful restart allows a node to recover state from its neighbor when there is no RP or before the device undergoes SSO.
D. Graceful restart does not allow session information recovery.
E. During a graceful restart, the router removes any stale prefixes after a timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10
Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B. By default, iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C. By default, the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E. By default, iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 11
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that ensures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? 400-201 dumps (Choose two.)
A. IP FRR
B. NSR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. TE FRR
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12
The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four)
A. IS-Type
B. Overload (LSPDBOL)
C. Pseudonode (PN)
D. Attached (ATT)
E. Fragment (Frag-Nr)
F. Partition (P)
Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 13
One ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS, you want to redesign the network to improve performance and convergence, which are correct ways? (Choose two)
A. Bidirectional forwarding failure detection
B. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP.......exp backoff timers C. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
C. IP Event Dampending
D. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
The prefix 10.1.1.64/28 should be advertised to the PE router, yet the prefix is not being received by the PE. Which configuration should be applied on CE in order to fix this issue?
A. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP seq 1 permit 10.1.1.64/28
B. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.128 mask 255.255.255.128
C. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP permit 10.1.1.64/28
D. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which Cisco IOS XR Virtualization technology provides full isolation between virtualized routing instances for extra control plane resources?
A. HVR
B. SVR
C. SDR
D. DRP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
Which router is the DIS?
A. router-22
B. router-44
C. router-33 and router-44
D. router-11
E. router-33
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 17
Which is one difference between H-VPLS and VPLS? 400-201 dumps
A. VPLS is a point-to-point Layer-2 services and H-VPLS is a multipoint Layer-2 services.
B. H-VPLS reduces signaling overhead and packet replication requirementsfor the provider edge.
C. VPLS improve scalability concerns identified on H-VPLS implementation.
D. H-VPLS connects using also other Layer-2 encapsulation such as PPP and VPLS connects using
Ethernet encapsulation only
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to deploy a solution that allows for 200 DS1 s and 100 DS0s that are multiplexed to a single interface on a Cisco 7600 Series Router. Which interface type satisfies this requirement?
A. Channelized T3/E3 (DS0)
B. Channelized OC-12/STM-4
C. OC-12/STM-4
D. OC-48c/STM-16
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
In an MPLS VPN environment, the QoS marking over the MPLS backbone must be different from the one that is received from the customer. The forwarding on the egress PE is based on the marking that is set by the ingress PE. Which null label and QoS mode can achieve this?
A. MPLS explicit null with pipe mode
B. MPLS implicit null with short pipe mode
C. MPLS implicit null with uniform mode
D. MPLS explicit null with uniform mode
E. MPLS explicit null with short pipe mode
F. MPLS implicit null with pipe mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
B. Its AD is less than the successor's FD
C. Its AD is equal to the successor's FD
D. Its AD is greater than the successor's FD
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
How can you detect a false negative on an IPS?
A. View the alert on the IPS.
B. Review the IPS log.
C. Review the IPS console.
D. Use a third-party system to perform penetration testing.
E. Use a third-party to audit the next-generation firewall rules.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.
D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments? 210-260 dumps
A. It forwards email requests to an external signature engine.
B. It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs.
C. It sends the traffic through a file policy.
D. It sends an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the given configuration is true?
A. The single-connection command causes the device to establish one connection for all TACACS transactions.
B. The single-connection command causes the device to process one TACACS request and then move to the next server.
C. The timeout command causes the device to move to the next server after 20 seconds of TACACS inactivity.
D. The router communicates with the NAS on the default port, TCP 1645.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 7
What can the SMTP preprocessor in FirePOWER normalize?
A. It can extract and decode email attachments in client to server traffic.
B. It can look up the email sender.
C. It compares known threats to the email sender.
D. It can forward the SMTP traffic to an email filter server.
E. It uses the Traffic Anomaly Detector.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto ipsec sa command. What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
B. ISAKMP security associations are established between 10.1.1.5 and 10.1.1.1.
C. IKE version 2 security associations are established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a mismatch between encrypted and decrypted packets.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDoS attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. virus
D. adware
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
In the router ospf 200 command, what does the value 200 stand for? 210-260 dumps
A. process ID
B. area ID
C. administrative distance value
D. ABR ID
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What is example of social engineering
A. Gaining access to a building through an unlocked door.
B. something about inserting a random flash drive.
C. gaining access to server room by posing as IT
D. Watching other user put in username and password (something around there)
Correct Answer: C
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Account Managers
Exam Code: 700-505
Total Questions: 50 Q&As
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical details to help differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?
A. Cisco Commerce Workspace
B. Competitive Portal
C. Quick Product Reference Guide
D. Cisco Discovery Service
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which three statements about the Cisco ISR G2 security solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ISR G2 security should only be deployed after a customer has rejected deploying Cisco ASA security.
B. Web Security Connected is delivered as a service module.
C. Software upgrades and reboots are needed to install security licenses.
D. Web Security Connected integrates with the Cisco ASA firewalls and the Cisco AnyConnect secure mobility client.
E. Cisco IPS network module can be added to the Cisco 2900 and 3900 Series routers.
F. Software licenses for security services include; IPsec/SSL VPN, Firewall, IPS.
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 3
Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsizebusiness? 700-505 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint
B. Cisco MX200
C. Cisco VCS
D. Cisco Profile 42
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
Which three options are benefits that a customer can achieve by implementing a Cisco borderless wiredwireless solution?
(Choose three.)
A. Automatically provision SSIDs based on VLAN ID
B. Allow more than 50 users per access point to stream video content.
C. Determine the number of devices and users on the network.
D. Enforce policies to manage network access and keep data secure.
E. Network scalability to meet increased traffic and growing number of devices.
F. Prevent non-authorized devices from seeing SSIDs.
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 5
Which Cisco series switch is stackable and provides solid baseline switching?
A. 200 Series
B. 300 Series
C. 500 Series
D. 100 Series
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which incentive program gives an up-front discount to partners with registered opportunities?
A. Cisco Partner Incentive Program
B. Value Incentive Program
C. Solution Incentive Program
D. Opportunity Incentive Program
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which two products belong to the Cisco Data Center portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C220
B. Cisco WLC 2504
C. Cisco SVC 320
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 8
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? (Choose two)
A. simple devices that work well together right out of the box
B. enterprise-grade functionality; complexity is not a concern
C. flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future
D. solutions that will increase employee morale
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9 700-505 dumps Which Cisco Catalyst model should you recommend to a customer that is considered a bargain buyer?
A. 2960
B. 3750
C. 300
D. 1900
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree
B. Smart Install
C. AutoSmartPorts
D. Smart CallHome
E. Solar-powered
F. Uninterruptable power
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 11
Which option is the back-end security ecosystem that detects threat activity, researches and analyzes those threats: and provides real-time updates along with best practices to allow organizations to be informed and protected?
A. Threat Operation Center
B. Secure Infrastructure Optimization
C. Monitor Analysis Response System
D. Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)
A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility
B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff
C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools
D. by providing a complex borderless solution
Correct Answer: AC
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
QUESTION 1
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Some routers have been configured with default routes. 100-105 dumps What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 8
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.)
A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.
B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface.
C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.
D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.
E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?
A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19
B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0
C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0
D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0
E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0
F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B. allows remote management of the switch
C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE
An engineer must apply IP addressing to five new WAN sites and choses the new subnets pictured. The previous
Which options could he use ? (Choose Two) 
Correct Answer: 
Correct Answer: 
Enable specifically at the network edge >STP Manually prune unused VLANs >Trunks Use specifically on fiber-optic
A. incorrect PSK 
