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Where can I download the Microsoft 70-779 exam question answers? Meetexams shares the latest and effective Microsoft 70-779 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Microsoft exam experts update 70-779 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 70-779 exam dumps selection: https://www.leads4pass.com/70-779.html (115 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

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Latest Microsoft MCSA 70-779 google drive

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Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-779.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Consume and Transform Data by Using Microsoft Excel (30-35%)

Model Data (35-40%)

Visualize Data (30-35%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam should have a strong understanding of how to use Microsoft Excel to perform data analysis. Candidates should be able to consume, transform, model, and visualize data in Excel. Candidates should also be able to configure and manipulate data in PowerPivot, PivotTables, and PivotCharts. Candidates may include BI professionals, data analysts, and other roles responsible for analyzing data with Excel.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-779 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have the data model shown in the Data Model exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) leads4pass 70-779 exam question q1

You have the PivotChart shown in the Pivot Chart exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q1-1

You need to change the current view of the PivotChart to display ProductCategory only. What should you do?
A. Double-click a bar in the PivotChart.
B. Click the - button.
C. Right-click the PivotChart and click Reset to Match Style.
D. Right-click a bar in the PivotChart and click Expand Entire Field.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have the Excel worksheet shown in the exhibit. leads4pass 70-779 exam question q2

You need to transform the data by using Query Editor. What should you do first?
A. From the Data tab, click From Table/Range.
B. From the Data tab, click Flash Fill.
C. From the Data tab, click Consolidate.
D. From the Insert tab, click Store.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have a measure that is used by a KPI.
You need to display the output of the measure in a cell in your workbook.
Which Excel function should you use?
A. CUBEVALUE
B. VLOOKUP
C. CUBESET
D. LOOKUP
Correct Answer: A
https://support.office.com/en-us/article/cubevalue-function-8733da24-26d1-4e34-9b3a-84a8f00dcbe0
https://powerpivotpro.com/2010/06/using-excel-cube-functions-with-powerpivot/

QUESTION 4
You have the following table.

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q4

You need to create a PivotTable as shown in the following exhibit.

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q4-1

What should you do?
A. Add Product to the Rows area. Add LineTotal to the Values area twice.
B. Add LineTotal to the Rows area. Add Product to the Values area twice.
C. Add Product to the Rows area. Add LineTotal to the Columns area twice.
D. Add LineTotal to the Rows area. Add Product to the Values area twice.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You have a table named Sales that has three columns named Region, Country, and SalesAmount. You create a
PivotTable as shown in the following exhibit. leads4pass 70-779 exam question q5

You need to ensure that the PivotTable appears in three columns as shown in the following exhibit.

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q5-1

A. On the Design tab, click Report Layout and then click Show in Compact Form.
B. Move Country from the Rows area to the Columns area.
C. Move Country from the Rows area to the Values area.
D. On the Design tab, click Report Layout and then click Show in Tabular Form.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You have multiple workbook queries that load data from tables in Microsoft Azure SQL Database to a Power Pivot data
model.
You discover that new rows were added to the tables in Azure SQL Database.
You need to ensure that the workbook has the new data.
Why should you do?
A. Select a cell in the worksheet and pressF5.
B. From the data tab, click Refresh All.
C. Close and open the workbook.
D. From the Power Pivot tab, click Update All.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You create an Excel workbook named SalesResults.xlsx. You create a workbook query that connects to a Microsoft
SQL Server database and loads data to the data model. You create a PivotTable and a PivotChart.
You plan to share SalesResults.xlsx to several users outside of your organization.
You need to ensure that the users can see the PivotTable and the PivotChart when they open the file. The data in the
model must be removed.
What should you do?
A. Run the Document Inspector.
B. Save the workbook as an Excel Binary Workbook (.xlsb).
C. From Query Editor, open the Data Source Settings and delete the credentials.
D. Modify the source of the query.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Power Pivot model that contains the following tables. leads4pass 70-779 exam question q8

There is a relationship between Products and ProductCategory.
You need to create a hierarchy in Products that contains ProductCategoryName and ProductName.
Solution: You create a calculated column that uses the RELATED DAX function
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/2900/creating-hierarchies-in-powerpivot-for-excel/
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee634202.aspx

QUESTION 9
You have a table named Date that contains the following data. leads4pass 70-779 exam question q9

You plan to create Pivot Charts that will be sliced by MonthName.
You need to create a relationship between Sales and Date.
Which Columns should you use to create the relationship? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q9-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q9-2

QUESTION 10
You have an Excel spreadsheet that contains a PivotChart.
You install Microsoft Power BI Publisher for Excel.
You need to add a tile for the PivotChart to a Power BI dashboard.
What should you do?
A. From the Power BI tab in Excel, click Pin.
B. From the File menu in Excel, click Publish.
C. From powerbi.com, upload the excel workbook.
D. From powerbi.com, click Get apps.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have two Microsoft SQL Server database servers named Production1 and Test1. Production1 contains the same
tables as Test1. but only a subset of the data.
You add Test1 as a data source, and you select 10 tables. You configure several transformations.
You need to connect the model to the tables in Production1. The solution must maintain the existing transformations.
Solution: You delete the existing queries, and then you add new data sources.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You have the following table. leads4pass 70-779 exam question q12

You plan to use [Month Name] as the axis in a PivotChart.
You need to ensure that whenever [Month Name] is used in a chart, the months are displayed chronologically be
default.
What should you do?
A. Sort the [Month Name] column by [Month Name].
B. Change the Data Type of [Month Name] to Date.
C. Sort the [Month Name] column by [Month Name].
D. Add a calculated column named [ID] that use the [Month Name] and [Month Number] DAX formula
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You have a query that retrieves customers and their locations. You have sample of the data as shown in the following
table.

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q13

Additional customers and locations are added frequently.
You need to transform the data as shown in the following table.

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q13-1

What should you do?
A. Select the Locations columns and the select split column by delimiter. Use a comma as the delimiter and split into
rows.
B. Select the Customer columns, and then click Unpivot Columns.
C. Select the Customer columns, and then click Unpivot other Columns.
D. Select the Location columns and then select split column by delimiter. Use a comma as the delimiter and split into
columns.
Correct Answer: A

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Free download of Cisco Field Engineer 500-490 exam dumps and online practice tests

December 18, 2019

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3:42 am

How do I download the Cisco Advanced Enterprise Networks Architecture specialization (500-490) exam dumps? Meetexams shares the latest and effective Cisco 500-490 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 500-490 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 500-490 exam dumps selection: https://www.leads4pass.com/500-490.html (35 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

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Latest updates Cisco 500-490 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation.
B. ISE plays a critical role in SD-Access.
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
moves.
D. ISE can provide data about when a specific device connected to the network.
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. It distributed deployments, failover from primary to secondary Policy Administration Nodes happens automatically.
B. The number of logs that ISE can retain is determined by your disk space.
C. ISE supports IPv6 downloadable ACLs.
D. ISE can detected endpoints whose addresses have been translated via NAT.
E. ISE supports up to 100 Policy Services Nodes.
F. In two-nodes standalone ISE deployments, failover must be done manually.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\'s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase?
A. business case
B. detailed design
C. POV report
D. high-level design
E. PO
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How would Cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant?
A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication.
B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 802.1X authentication.
C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB.
D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication.
E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
What are three ways in which Cisco ISE learns information about devices? (Choose three.)
A. user authentication to the ISE
B. SMTP agents
C. RPC mechanism via HTTPS
D. traffic generated by the device
E. network servers the device has accessed
F. RADIUS attributes
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 8
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible.
B. Show the customer how to integrate ISE into DNA Center at the end of the demo.
C. Focus on business benefits.
D. Keep the demo at a high level.
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco product were incorporated into Cisco ISE between ISE releases 2.0 and 2.3?
A. Cisco ASA
B. Cisco ESA
C. Cisco ACS
D. Cisco WSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo
innovation.
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations.
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details.
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach.
E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies
F. allocating resources
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\'s discovery process? (Choose two.)
A. Establishing credibility with the customer
B. Working with the customer to develop a reference architecture
C. Referencing the PPDIOO model to effectively facilitate the discussion
D. Gathering information about the current state of the customer\\'s network environment
E. Mapping Cisco innovation to customer\\'s needs
Correct Answer: AD

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Oracle 1Z0-900 Exam Questions and Answers, 1Z0-900 Dumps Best Choice

December 4, 2019

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5:31 am

Where do I get the Oracle 1Z0-900 exam questions? Meetexams shares the latest and effective Oracle Java EE and Web Services 1Z0-900 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Oracle exam experts update 1Z0-900 exam questions throughout the year.
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Latest updates Oracle 1Z0-900 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Given the set of navigation rules: leads4pass 1z0-900 exam question q1

Which two define a valid flow of view IDs through the application? (Choose two.)
A. home > goodbye > list-widgets
B. dashboard > home > add-widget > list-widgets
C. list-widgets > add-widget > home > dashboard > home
D. home > list-widgets > add-widget > goodbye
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Your customer wants to prevent customer shipments out of a specific subventory. They are setting up a material status
to control this.
Which transaction do they need to disallow?
A. Sales Order Pick
B. Sales Order Issue
C. Ship Confirm
D. Miscellaneous Issue
E. Move Request Putaway.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What are two outcomes when a lot expires on an item with lot control enabled?
A. It remains an inventory, but is not considered on-hand when the user is performing min-max or reorder point planning
calculations.
B. It is issued out of stores.
C. It cannot be transacted.
D. It is not included in cycle counts.
E. It cannot be reserved for a date beyond the expiration date.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
As part of implementing Oracle Cloud for your customer, you defined multiple Business Units. The customer wants you
to define an Inventory Organization that is associated with all the business units and not just one particular business
unit.
How do you achieve this?
A. Define the Inventory Organization without associating it with any location.
B. Leave the Management Business Unit field blank in the Inventory Organization definition.
C. Leave the Profit Center Business Unit field blank in the Inventory Organization definition.
D. It is not possible to define an Inventory Organization that is associated with more than one business unit.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You face a supply request exception due to some reason. You realize that you need to make some changes to the
Manage Supply Request Exceptions page.
Which action will you perform?
A. The supply request cannot be updated. The only way is to resolve the error in the source application and resubmit
the request.
B. The supply request can be updated using a third-party application only.
C. Update the supply request and submit it. The errors will be resolved automatically.
D. Update the supply request and make sure errors are resolved before resubmitting it.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Given the JPQL code fragment:
Select pub.title, pub.author, pub.pages FROM Publisher pub
Which two clauses do you add to this JPQL query to retrieve only those books with between 500 and 750 total pages?
(Choose two.)
A. WHERE MIN(pages) >= 500 AND MAX(pages)

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Get the latest Oracle 1Z0-1024 exam questions, 1Z0-1024 dumps

December 3, 2019

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7:10 am

What is the best way to pass the Oracle Inventory Management Cloud 1Z0-1024 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: leads4pass Oracle expert.) You can get free Oracle 1Z0-1024 exam practice test questions here.
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Latest updates Oracle 1Z0-1024 exam
practice questions

QUESTION 1
If the accounting method does not have an assigned chart of accounts (COA), which option is valid?
A. The accounting method may only be used by ledgers without a COA.
B. The accounting method must have a mapping set to convert the accounts.
C. Any secondary ledger that uses the method cannot have a COA.
D. The accounting method can be assigned to any ledger.
E. Accounting rules cannot override the accounting method.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Select the two valid relationships between subledger components. (Choose two.)
A. Journal entry rule sets hold journal rules and accounting rules.
B. Journal entry rules are used to hold accounting rules.
C. The accounting method groups journal entry rule sets by Event Class and Event Type.
D. The accounting method holds the accounting rules by vent Class and Event Type.
E. The journal lines hold the journal entry rule sets.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
How is the standard cost of a manufactured configured item calculated?
A. It is based on the material and resource requirements of a released work order.
B. The standard cost is calculated for every possible combination of options under a model item.
C. The standard cost of a model item is calculated.
D. It is based on the actual cost of the work order after it is completed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your client wants their expense items to be accrued at receipt.
Which two configurations support this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Product Information Management > Search and select item > Specifications > Manufacturing > Verify that Inventory
Asset Value is set to "No".
B. Manage Common Options for Payables and Procurement > Select the business unit > Expense Accruals > Set
Accrue Expense Items to At Receipt.
C. Product Information Management > Search and select the expense item > Specifications > Manufacturing > Verify
that Inventory Asset Value is set to "Yes".
D. Manage Common Options for Payables and Procurement > Select the business unit > Expense Accruals > Set
Accrue Expense Items to Period End.
E. Configure Procurement Business Function > Select the business unit > Set Select Receipt Close Point to Accrue at
Period End.
F. Configure Procurement Business Function > Select the business unit > Set Select Receipt Close Point to Accrue at
At Receipt.
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 5
Your client wants to turn on summary for GL posting, but they want the Subledger Accounting to contain every
transaction unsummarized for detailed analysis and drill down.
How do you accomplish this?
A. Write a custom report.
B. Extract distribution accounting entries.
C. Turn off merge matching lines in the journal line rule.
D. Turn on detailed posting for GL in the ledger setup.
E. Turn off the summarize flag in the journal line rule.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which three predefined areas can you review on the Overview page of Cost Accounting? (Choose three.)
A. Purchase Variance Summary
B. Journal Entries
C. Item Costs
D. Cost Processing
E. Work Order Costs
F. Inventory Valuation
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 7
You have made some changes to your subledger accounting setups for Costing and want to verify that the journal
entries are showing up correctly.
How can you generate a report that allows you to see the subledger journal entries for transactions without actually
transferring to the General Ledger?
A. Run the Create Accounting for Costing process with the following parameters:
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which four predefined costing reports can you use to gather information to review inventory value? (Choose four.)
A. Costing Account Balances Report
B. In-transit Valuation Report
C. COGS and Revenue Matching Report
D. Work in Process Inventory Valuation Report
E. Layer Inventory Valuation Report
F. Cost Accounting Valuation Report
G. Inventory Valuation Report
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 9
What are three cost method choices that are available in Cost Accounting? (Choose three.)
A. Standard cost
B. Actual cost (FIFO or First In First Out)
C. Periodic average cost
D. Actual cost (LIFO or Last In First Out)
E. Perpetual average cost
F. Period end average cost
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 10
A manager has decided to close the period by not allowing any new transactions, except for corrections and
adjustments, which can happen any time before the period is closed permanently.
Which cost period status will allow the system to perform the transaction?
A. Never Opened
B. Open
C. Closed
D. Permanently
E. Close Pending
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two types of costs are included cost of contract manufactured in the items? (Choose two.)
A. The cost of resources consumed at the OEM\\'s factory
B. The cost of the contract manufacturing service item. This is the price that the contract manufacturer will charge to
make the outputs and would normally be enough to cover their costs and include a fair profit.
C. The cost of items that the original equipment manufacturer (OEM) owns and has provided to the contract
manufacturer for use in the process of making the output items
D. The cost of items that the contract manufacturer had to purchase to perform the contract manufacturing service, and
the cost of resources used by the contract manufacturer
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Identify the four types of cost adjustments. (Choose three.)
A. A retroactive purchase order price adjustment can cause an adjustment to the inventory value and the cost of goods
sold.
B. When a supplier invoice is processed in accounts payable, it can cause an adjustment to the inventory value and the
cost of goods sold if the amounts processed for payment are different from the estimated amount on the purchase
order.
C. A change to a requisition after the purchase order has been created will create a cost adjustment. D. A revenue
recognition event, which in turn triggers a cost of goods sold recognition event, can cause a cost adjustment.
D. A standard cost update will create an inventory value adjustment.
E. Authorized users can manually create cost adjustments.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 13
Identify four processors available in the cost processor. (Choose four.)
A. Cost Distribution Processor
B. Cost Reports Processor
C. Costing Period Processor
D. Cost of Goods Sold Processor
E. Receipt Processor
F. Cost Accounting Processor
Correct Answer: ABDF

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Latest updates Microsoft 98-388 exam exercise questions to easily pass the exam

November 8, 2019

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admin

5:37 am

What is the best way to pass the Microsoft 98-388 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: leads4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft Java 6 SE 98-388 exam practice test questions here.
Or choose https://www.leads4pass.com/98-388.html (42 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft Java 6 SE 98-388 google drive

Effective Microsoft 98-388 exam practice questions

Related 98-388 Popular Exam resources

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[PDF] Free Microsoft Java 6 SE 98-388 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1NZXcF4ZuMIOx-0pr2o193JmmldiSBMvo

98-388: Introduction to Programming Using Java - Microsoft：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-388.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Understand Java fundamentals (15-20%)

Work with data types, variables, and expressions (40-45%)

Implement flow control (15-20%)

Perform object-oriented programming (10-15%)

Compile and debug code (5-10%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam are application developers working with Java 6 SE or later, secondary and immediate post-secondary level students of software development, or entry-level software developers.

Candidates should have at least 150 hours or instruction or hands-on experience with Java, are familiar with its features and capabilities, and understand how to write, debug and maintain well-formed, well documented Java code.

Latest updates Microsoft 98-388 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You are creating a method that converts a string representation of a number into an actual number.
The numbers passed into the method include whole numbers and fractional numbers.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: leads4pass 98-388 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 98-388 exam question q1-1

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/data/converting.html

QUESTION 2
You have a Java class named InsurancePolicy.
You need to define a constant data member named RATE. The data member must be accessible by any class without
instantiating the InsurancePolicy class.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct position. Each code
segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place: leads4pass 98-388 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 98-388 exam question q2-1

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/javaOO/classvars.html

QUESTION 3
You are interviewing for a job at Adventure Works, Inc. The hiring manager asks you to create a single console
program.
The program takes multiple arguments from the command line and writes them to the screen in the same order as they
were typed on the command line.
Which three code segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate code segments
from the list of code segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place: leads4pass 98-388 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 98-388 exam question q3-1

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/getStarted/cupojava/netbeans.html

QUESTION 4
You are creating a method that processes invoices. The invoices are contained in an ArrayList instance. After each
invoice is processed, the method must remove the invoice from the ArrayList instance.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: leads4pass 98-388 exam question q4

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References: https://beginnersbook.com/2013/12/java-arraylist/

QUESTION 5
You need to analyze the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only. leads4pass 98-388 exam question q5

What is the output of line 12 when you run printInt()?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to evaluate the following Java program. Line numbers are included for reference only. leads4pass 98-388 exam question q6

Which three values will be displayed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate values from the list of values to the
answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 7
You work as a Java programmer. A member of the team creates the following program. Line numbers are included for
reference only. leads4pass 98-388 exam question q7

The program is supposed to display a message to the console while it counts down from 60. The method does not work
as intended.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass 98-388 exam question q7-1

Correct Answer:

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References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/nutsandbolts/operators.html

QUESTION 8
Traders hires you to write a Java program to manage account openings. To open a new account, a user must meet one
the following requirements:
be over 65 years old and have a minimum annual income of 10,000
be at least 21 and have an annual income greater than 25,000
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate operator to the correct position. Each operator
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place: leads4pass 98-388 exam question q8

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leads4pass 98-388 exam question q8-1

References: https://www.tutorialspoint.com/java/java_basic_operators.htm

QUESTION 9
You are writing a Java console program. The program accepts command line arguments.
You need to ensure that the main method parses and handles each command line argument.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: leads4pass 98-388 exam question q9

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leads4pass 98-388 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
You are interviewing for a job as a Java developer.
You are presented with the following code. Line numbers are included for reference only. leads4pass 98-388 exam question q10

You need to evaluate what happens when the code runs.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the code.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 11
You need to evaluate the following code. Line numbers are included for reference only. leads4pass 98-388 exam question q11

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the code. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

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Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 12
You attend an interview for a job as a Java programmer.
You need to declare a two by three array of the double type with initial values.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location. Each code
segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place: leads4pass 98-388 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 98-388 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
You write the following Java program for Munson
Correct Answer: leads4pass 98-388 exam question q13

References: https://www.w3schools.com/java/java_try_catch.asp

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Latest updates Microsoft 98-367 exam exercise questions to easily pass the exam

November 8, 2019

No Comments

admin

3:29 am

What is the best way to pass the Microsoft 98-367 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: leads4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 exam practice test questions here.
Or choose https://www.leads4pass.com/98-367.html (277 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 google drive

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Exam 98-367: Security fundamentals - Microsoft：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-367.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Understand security layers (25–30%)

Understand operating system security (35-40%)

Understand network security (20–25%)

Understand security software (15–20%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam validates that a candidate has fundamental security knowledge and skills. It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams.
It is recommended that candidates become familiar with the concepts and the technologies described here by taking relevant training courses. Candidates are expected to have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, anti-malware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.

Latest updates Microsoft 98-367 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a tool that can be used to evaluate the servers having vulnerabilities that are related to the
operating system and installed software?
A. DNS dynamic update
B. Windows Software Update Services
C. Read-Only domain controller (RODC)
D. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer
Correct Answer: D
Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer is a tool that can be used to evaluate the servers having vulnerabilities that are
related to the operating system and installed software Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) is a software tool of
Microsoft to determine security state by assessing missing security updates and less- secure security settings within
Microsoft Windows, Windows components such as Internet Explorer, IIS web server, and products Microsoft SQL
Server,
and Microsoft Office macro settings. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) includes a graphical and command
line interface that can perform local or remote scans of Windows systems.
Answer: B is incorrect. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is an add- on component of Windows Server 2008. It
provides functionality to a server to run as a Windows Update server in a Windows network environment.
Administrators
can configure a WSUS server as the only server to download updates from Windows site, and configure other
computers on the network to use the server as the source of update files. This will save lots of bandwidth as each
computer will not
download updates individually. WSUS 3.0 SP1 is the only version of WSUS that can be installed on Windows Server
2008. Earlier versions of WSUS cannot be installed on a server running Windows Server 2008.
Answer: C is incorrect. Read-only Domain Controller (RODC) is a domain controller that hosts the read-only partition of
the Active Directory database. RODC was developed by Microsoft typically to be deployed in a branch office
environment.
RODC is a good option to enhance security by placing it in a location where physical security is poor. RODC can also
be placed at locations having relatively few users and a poor network bandwidth to the main site. As only the read-only
partition of the Active Directory database is hosted by RODC, a little local IT knowledge is required to maintain it.
Answer: A is incorrect. DNS dynamic update is used to enable DNS client computers for registering and dynamically
updating their resource records with a DNS server whenever any modification or change has been taken place. It is
used to
update the DNS client computers with the reflecting changes.

QUESTION 2
A digitally signed e-mail message:
A. Validates the recipient
B. Validates the sender
C. Is encrypted
D. Is virus-free
Correct Answer: B
By digitally signing a message, you apply your unique digital mark to the message. The digital signature includes your
certificate and public key. This information proves to the recipient that you signed the contents of the message and not
an imposter, and that the contents have not been altered in transit. Reference: http://office.microsoft.com/en-us/outlook-help/secure-messages-with-a-digital-signature-HP001230539.aspx

QUESTION 3
Which enables access to all of the logged-in user\\'s capabilities on a computer?
A. Java applets
B. ActiveX controls
C. Active Server Pages (ASP)
D. Microsoft Silverlight
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
To keep third-party content providers from tracking your movements on the web, enable InPrivate Browsing.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed\\'\\' if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. InPrivate Filtering
B. SmartScreen Filter
C. Compatibility Mode
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You need to install a domain controller in a branch office. You also need to secure the information on the domain
controller. You will be unable to physically secure the server. Which should you implement?
A. Read-Only Domain Controller
B. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Server Core Domain Controller
Correct Answer: A
A read-only domain controller (RODC) is a new type of domain controller in the Windows Server?2008 operating
system. With an RODC, organizations can easily deploy a domain controller in locations where physical security cannot
be guaranteed. An RODC hosts read-only partitions of the Active Directory?Domain Services (AD DS) database.
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732801(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 6
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area: leads4pass 98-367 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 98-367 exam question q6-1

QUESTION 7
You want to make your computer resistant to online hackers and malicious software. What should you do?
A. Configure a forward proxy.
B. Install anti-virus software.
C. Enable spam filtering.
D. Turn on Windows Firewall.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following helps prevent security failures?
A. Social engineering
B. Denial-of-Service attack
C. Attack surface reduction
D. Snooping
Correct Answer: C
The attack surface is a software environment where codes can be run by unauthenticated users. By improving
information security, the attack surface of a system or software can be reduced. Although attack surface reduction helps
prevent
security failures; it does not mitigate the amount of damage an attacker could inflict once a vulnerability is found.
Answer: B is incorrect. A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is mounted with the objective of causing a negative impact on
the performance of a computer or network. It is also known as network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption
attack.
Attackers make DoS attacks by sending a large number of protocol packets to a network. The problems caused by a
DoS attack are as follows: Saturate network resources.
Disrupt connections between two computers, thereby preventing communications between services.
Disrupt services to a specific computer.
Answer: D is incorrect. Snooping is an activity of observing the content that appears on a computer monitor or watching
what a user is typing. Snooping also occurs by using software programs to remotely monitor activity on a computer or
network device. Hackers or attackers use snooping techniques and equipment such as keyloggers to monitor
keystrokes, capture passwords and login information, and to intercept e-mail and other private communications.
Sometimes,
organizations also snoop their employees legitimately to monitor their use of organizations\\' computers and track
Internet usage.
Answer: A is incorrect. Social engineering is the art of convincing people and making them disclose useful information
such as account names and passwords. This information is further exploited by hackers to gain access to a user\\'s
computer or network. This method involves mental ability of people to trick someone rather than their technical skills. A
user should always distrust people who ask him for his account name, password, computer name, IP address,
employee
ID, or other information that can be misused.

QUESTION 9
Which password attack uses all possible alpha numeric combinations?
A. Social engineering
B. Brute force attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Rainbow table attack
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Alice sends her password to the game server in plaintext. Chuck is able to observe her password as shown in the
following image: leads4pass 98-367 exam question q10

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass 98-367 exam question q10-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 98-367 exam question q10-2

QUESTION 11
Mark works as the Network Administrator of a Windows 2000 based network. In order to reduce the administrative
burden and to optimize the network performance, he implements the DHCP and the DNS servers on the network. What
will he do integrate the working between the DHCP and the DNS servers? Each correct answer represents a part of the
solution. Choose two.
A. Configure the clients to use the DHCP server.
B. Enable DNS updates on the DHCP server.
C. Enable dynamic update on the DNS server.
D. Use the TCP/IP protocol on the network.
Correct Answer: BC
Answer: B and C To ensure proper DHCP-DNS integration, Mark must enable dynamic DNS support on the DNS server
as well as on the DHCP server. In the Windows 2000 Server, the DHCP service provides support to register and update
information for legacy DHCP clients in DNS zones. Legacy clients typically include other Microsoft TCP/IP client
computers that were released prior to Windows 2000 like Windows 9x, Windows NT. The DNS-DHCP integration,
provided in the Windows 2000 Server, enables a DHCP client that is unable to dynamically update DNS resource
records directly to have this information updated in the DNS forward, and reverse lookup zones by the DHCP server.
Note: Dynamic integration with the DHCP service is available only with Windows 2000 Server. DNS-DHCP integration is
not supported by DHCP servers running under Windows NT Server 4.0 and earlier versions.

QUESTION 12
The client computers on your network are stable and do not need any new features. Which is a benefit of applying
operating system updates to these clients?
A. Keep the software licensed
B. Keep the server ports available
C. Update the hardware firewall
D. Close existing vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Ron owns the domain TechPerfect.net. He often receives bounces about messages he didn\\'t send. After looking at all
such mails, he is sure that someone is spamming e- mails and using his domain name. What will Ron do to ensure that
his domain name is not exploited?
A. Publish the MX record for the domain.
B. Publish the SPF record for the domain.
C. Publish the AAAA record for the domain.
D. Publish the A record for the domain.
Correct Answer: B
Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an e-mail validation system designed to prevent e- mail spam by tackling source
address spoofing. SPF allows administrators to specify which hosts are allowed to send e-mail from a given domain by
creating a specific SPF record (or TXT record) in the public Domain Name System (DNS). Mail exchangers then use the
DNS to check whether that mail from the given domain is being sent by a host sanctioned by that domain\\'s
administrators. Answer: A, D, and C are incorrect. These records do not help prevent domain names from being
exploited by hackers.

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Microsoft mb-900 exam exercise questions, mb-900 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

October 11, 2019

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admin

6:11 am

"Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals" Exam MB-900.
This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational knowledge of Microsoft Dynamics 365, Power Platform applications,
and the cloud computing model. This exam will cover the considerations and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365, the Power Platform,
and cloud services in general. This exam can be taken as a precursor to Dynamics 365 certifications and training.

Here you can get the latest free MB-900 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

MB-900 exam

Candidates for this exam should have a general knowledge of relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment.
Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

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Exam MB-900: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta)：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-MB-900.aspx

Skills measured

Understand Dynamics 365 (40-45%)

Understand cloud concepts (25-30%)

Understand deployments and releases (20-25%)

Free Microsoft MB-900 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
What are the benefits of using cloud computing? To answer, drag the appropriate release types to the correct benefits.
Each release type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place: leads4pass mb-900 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass mb-900 exam question q1-1

QUESTION 2
You need to identify which applications can be deployed as software as a service (SaaS) in the Microsoft cloud.
Which two applications can be deployed? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
B. Dynamics GP
C. Microsoft Excel
D. Dynamics CRM 2016
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Match each Microsoft Azure service to its category. To answer, drag the appropriate category from the column on the
left to its Azure service on the right. Each category may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place: leads4pass mb-900 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

leads4pass mb-900 exam question q3-1

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined test to determine if it is correct.
The Customer Service Hub app is available on desktop browser and on a mobile device. It can be used for managing
cases and knowledge articles.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is needed". If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change needed
B. optimizes viewing for desktop browsers only
C. is available on a desktop browser for case management, but not for managing knowledge articles
D. does not provide the ability to add an activity to a case on a mobile device
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You need to create a new Dynamics 365 application that limits users to viewing only customer accounts.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place: leads4pass mb-900 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

leads4pass mb-900 exam question q5-1

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You need to determine which tasks are available by default in the mobile app.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the task is available. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: leads4pass mb-900 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Match each application to its definition.
To answer, drag the appropriate application from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each application
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place: leads4pass mb-900 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

leads4pass mb-900 exam question q7-1

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes is the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: leads4pass mb-900 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

leads4pass mb-900 exam question q8-1

QUESTION 9
You company wants to test Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement. The 30-day trial expires in a few days.
You need to extend the trial period for an additional 30 days.
What should you do?
A. Purchase a 30-day subscription
B. In the administrative portal, choose Extend trial, and then enter your credit card information
C. Open a support ticket with Microsoft to ask for an extension
D. Export your solution, start a new trial, and import the solution
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/billing-faqs-dynamics-365-online

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You need to determine whether to deploy Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations on-premises or in the cloud.
Which capabilities are handled by which deployment models? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: leads4pass mb-900 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

leads4pass mb-900 exam question q10-1

QUESTION 11
Several company employees need access to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for expense entry purposes
only.
You need to add the most restrictive license.
What should you do?
A. Get a User Subscription License (User SL) and give full user access
B. Get Licensed with Dynamics 365 Team Members
C. Get licensed with a Dynamics 365 Application subscription
D. Get a Device Subscription License (Device SL)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You run Dynamics 365 in the cloud. You make customizations using Microsoft Azure Blob storage for storing
documents, Azure Logic Apps for integration, and Azure IoT Hub to collect customer sensor data.
You need to determine the type of cloud service model being used by the customizations.
Which cloud service model is being used?
A. software as a service (SaaS)
B. platform as a service (PaaS)
C. infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
D. hybrid deployment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A company needs to assess the current General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) compliance for its Dynamics 365
and Microsoft 365 Office implementations.
You need to recommend a tool to help manage GDPR compliance activities. You also need to provide a compliance
score with managed actions for both the company and Microsoft.
Which tool should you recommend?
A. Microsoft Trust Center
B. Detailed Assessment toolkit
C. Compliance Manager
D. Service Trust Portal
E. control mapping
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/meet-data-protection-and-regulatory-reqs-using-microsoft-cloud

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August 21, 2019

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QUESTION 1
An end user needs to completely re-install Windows 7 on a home computer but it did not come with any OS discs. How
would a technician accomplish this?
A. Recovery partition
B. Primary partition
C. System restore
D. System refresh
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following
security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?
A. Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B. Change the default username and password
C. Enable the wireless AP\\'s MAC filtering
D. Enable the wireless AP\\'s WPA2 security
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The network administrator has changed the IP address of Computer A from 192. 168. 120 to 10. 10. 1020 and now Jane
a user, is unable to connect to file shares on Computer A from Computers using the computer name.
Instructions:
Using the available tools, resolve the connectivity issues. When you have completed the simulation, please select the
done button to submit your answer.
Correct Answer: Please review explanation for detailed answer
Please check the below images for detailed connectivity steps to do:

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QUESTION 4
A technician is attempting to troubleshoot a Linux home folder issue, but does not remember which directory is current.
Which of the following tools should the technician use to find the current directory?
A. dir
B. sudo
C. cd
D. pwd
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A technician is attempting to manually migrate a user\\'s profile from one Windows PC to another. Files in the user\\'s
My Documents folder cannot be copied. Some files in question have green letters in the filenames. Which of the
following file systems is causing this to occur?
A. exFAT
B. COMPRESSED
C. EFS
D. NTFS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A company has subscribed to a cloud service, paying monthly for a block of services and being billed incrementally
when they exceed the monthly fee. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent?
A. Measured service
B. Rapid elasticity
C. On-demand D. Resource pooling
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The user is having trouble using the mouse. The technician believes a program stopped responding that caused the
issue and asks the customer to hold down "Ctrl + Shift + Esc" to verify. Which of the following did the technician
launch?
A. Task Manager
B. Control Panel
C. Services
D. MSCONFIG
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A technician replaced a video card on a desktop PC. The technician powers on the PC to install the device drivers. The
PC boots up and goes through the POST, but the screen goes black when trying to boot the operating system. Which of
the following steps should the technician perform NEXT to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Flash the BIOS
B. Reseat the video card
C. Boot the PC in safe mode
D. Replace the video card with a new one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Data on full disk encrypted drives using BitLocker is MOST secure from loss when combined with which of the following
technologies?
A. USB authentication token
B. Filesystem access controls
C. Trusted platform module
D. Fingerprint reader
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows
Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted
to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would
BEST resolve the problem?
A. Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B. Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C. Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D. Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An employee was arrested after it was determined that an office computer was used for illegal activity that damaged the
company. Which of the following MUST be documented on the employee\\'s computer to ensure the evidence is
admissible on court?
A. Software inventory
B. Personality identifiable information
C. Security best practices
D. Chain of custody
Correct Answer: D
Reference https://epic.org/security/computer_search_guidelines.txt

QUESTION 12
When moving files from a Microsoft gaming console, which of the following command line utilities is recommended to
transfer files?
A. IMAP
B. XCOPY
C. DISKPART
D. FDISK
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A company that manages its own cloud, while utilizing a third-party vendor to help manage storage, is implementing
which of the following infrastructure types?
A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Private
D. Public
Correct Answer: A

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Latest updates Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps and pdf, 210-260 Practice Questions and Answers

July 5, 2019

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Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?
A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.
B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.
C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.
D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.
E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.
Correct Answer: A
The term personal firewall typically applies to the basic software that can control Layer 3 and Layer 4 access to client
machines. HIPS provides several features that offer more robust security than a traditional personal firewall, such as
host intrusion prevention and protection against spyware, viruses, worms, Trojans, and other types of malware. Source:
Cisco Official Certification Guide, Personal Firewalls and Host Intrusion Prevention Systems, p.499

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
Which protocol offers data integrity, encryption, authentication, and antireplay functions for IPsec VPN?
A. AH protocol
B. ESP protocol
C. IKEv2 protocol
D. IKEv1 protocol
Correct Answer: B
IP Security Protocol—Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a security protocol used to provide confidentiality (encryption), data origin
authentication, integrity, optional antireplay service, and limited traffic flow confidentiality by defeating traffic flow
analysis.
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24833andamp;seqNum=3

QUESTION 5
Which ports need to be active for AAA server to integrate with Microsoft AD
A. 445 and 8080
B. 443 and 389
C. 445 and 389
D. 443 and 8080
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
Split tunneling is a computer networking concept which allows a mobile user to access dissimilar security domains like a
public network (e.g., the Internet) and a local LAN or WAN at the same time, using the same or different network
connections. This connection state is usually facilitated through the simultaneous use of, a Local Area Network (LAN)
Network Interface Card (NIC), radio NIC, Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) NIC, and VPN client software
application without the benefit of access control. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Split_tunneling

QUESTION 7
You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which description of a mapped interface is true?
A. It is mandatory for all firewall modes.
B. It is mandatory for identity NAT only.
C. It is optional in transparent mode.
D. It is optional in routed mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which is a key security component of MDM deployment?
A. Using the network-specific installer package
B. Using self-signed certificates to validate the server – generate a self-signed certificate to connect to the server (Deployed
certificates; Issued certificate to the server likely)
C. Using application tunnel
D. Using MS-CHAPv2 as primary EAP method
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When is the best time to perform an anti-virus signature update?
A. Every time a new update is available.
B. When the local scanner has detected a new virus.
C. When a new virus is discovered in the wild.
D. When the system detects a browser hook.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A
Firewalls are generally designed to be on the network perimeter and can handle dropping a lot of the non- legitimate
traffic (attacks, scans, etc.) very quickly at the ingress interface, often in hardware. An IDS/IPS are, generally speaking,
doing more deep packet inspections and that is a much more computationally expensive undertaking. For that reason,
we prefer to filter what gets to it with the firewall line of defense before engaging the IDS/IPS to analyze the traffic flow.
Source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/discussion/12428821/correct-placement-idsips- network-architecture

QUESTION 11
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A
Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST) is a protocol proposal by Cisco Systems as a replacement for
LEAP. The protocol was designed to address the weaknesses of LEAP while preserving the "lightweight"
implementation. Use of server certificates is optional in EAP-FAST. EAP-FAST uses a Protected Access Credential
(PAC) to establish a TLS tunnel in which client credentials are verified. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensible_Authentication_Protocol

QUESTION 12
What are the primary attack methods of VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP hopping
B. Switch spoofing
C. CAM-table overflow
D. Double tagging
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF on an interface?
A. router(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCOPASS
B. router(config-router)#area 0 authentication message-digest
C. router(config-router)#ip ospf authentication-key CISCOPASS
D. router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
Correct Answer: D

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Latest updates Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 dumps and pdf, 210-255 Practice Questions and Answers

July 5, 2019

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Latest Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which statement about threat actors is true?
A. They are any company assets that are threatened.
B. They are any assets that are threatened.
C. They are perpetrators of attacks.
D. They are victims of attacks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are the three metrics, or andquot; scores,andquot; of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System
(CVSS)? (Select all that apply.)
A. Baseline score
B. Base score
C. Environmental score
D. Temporal score
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable
component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two potions are the primary 5-tuple components? (Choose two)
A. destination IP address
B. header length
C. sequence number
D. checksum
E. source IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization\\'s website. Which option is a
possible reason that the customer cannot access the website? leads4pass 210-255 exam question q6

A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial-of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet censors.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which CVSS metric describes the conditions that are beyond the attacker\\'s control that must exist to exploit the
vulnerability?
A. User interaction
B. Attack vector
C. attack complexity
D. privileges required
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which signature type results in a legitime alert been dismissed?
A. True negative
B. False negative
C. True Positive
D. False Positive
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following Linux file systems not only supports journaling but also modifies important data structures of the
file system, such as the ones destined to store the file data for better performance and reliability?
A. GRUB
B. LILO
C. Ext4
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high. Which potential result is true? leads4pass 210-255 exam question q12

A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is one of the main goals of the CSIRT?
A. To configure the organization\\'s firewalls
B. To monitor the organization\\'s IPS devices
C. To minimize and control the damage associated with incidents, provide guidance for mitigation, and work to prevent
future incidents
D. To hire security professionals who will be part of the InfoSec team of the organization.
Correct Answer: C

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