[Update 2025] Get the latest Cisco 300-820 exam dumps from Leads4Pass | 300-820 online practice test

In today’s rapidly evolving collaboration landscape, the Cisco 300-820 exam (Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions – CLCEI) has become a vital milestone for IT professionals specializing in Cisco Collaboration technologies.
This certification validates your ability to deploy and manage Cisco Expressway, Webex, Hybrid Services, and secure SIP signaling, forming the foundation of the CCNP Collaboration certification.

This comprehensive guide provides you with the latest Cisco updates, practical study plan, and an in-depth look at how the Leads4Pass 300-820 dumps https://www.leads4pass.com/300-820.html (PDF + VCE) can help you pass the exam with confidence.

Latest Official Overview of the Cisco 300-820 Exam

Cisco updated the 300-820 CLCEI exam in 2025, focusing on secure, intelligent collaboration between cloud and edge systems.
Key changes include:

  • New Webex Cloud registration mechanisms and integration with Cisco Control Hub.
  • Enhanced identity security coverage, including SAML, OAuth, and TLS signaling encryption.
  • Higher proportion of scenario-based lab questions (up to 40%).
  • Additional focus on Hybrid Calling and Expressway-C/E interoperability.

Exam Details:

  • Code: 300-820 CLCEI
  • Duration: 90 minutes
  • Number of Questions: 55–65
  • Passing Score: 750/1000

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When preparing for Cisco certification, the quality of your learning resources determines your success.
The Leads4Pass 300-820 exam dumps are globally recognized for their accuracy, up-to-date content, and practical format.

Highlights include:

  • 210 real Q&A, fully aligned with the latest 2025 exam blueprint.
  • VCE format for realistic simulation testing.
  • PDF version for convenient offline study.
  • Free sample questions and 7-day refund policy.

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Cisco 300-820 Exam Structure and Topic Weighting

Domain Weight
1.0 Key Concepts 25%
2.0 Initial Expressway Configurations 25%
3.0 Mobile and Remote Access 25%
4.0 Cisco Webex Technologies 55%

Effective Feb. 3, 2026, the 300-820 CLCEI exam will be renamed to 300-820 CLHCT: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Hybrid and Cloud Technologies
First date to test for v2.0 exam will be February 3, 2026.
View 300-820 CLHCT v2.0 Exam Topics

4-Week High-Impact Study Plan

Week Study Goal Recommended Resources
Week 1 Understand exam structure and key topics Cisco CLCEI course materials
Week 2 Focus on Expressway deployment & Hybrid Services lab Leads4Pass VCE + lab practice
Week 3 Master security & authentication topics Review errors + Cisco documentation
Week 4 Practice with mock exams & time management Full VCE simulations + final review

💡 Study for 2 hours daily and dedicate the final 3 days to full simulations and mistake review.

Hands-On Example: Expressway Traversal Zone Configuration

Practical knowledge is crucial for the 300-820 exam.
Here’s a simple Expressway-E/C Traversal Zone setup example:

xConfiguration Zones Zone[1].Name: "TraversalZone"
xConfiguration Zones Zone[1].Protocol: "TLS"
xConfiguration Zones Zone[1].PeerAddress: "expressway-e.domain.com"
xConfiguration Zones Zone[1].Authentication: "Digest"

This configuration ensures secure, bidirectional TLS communication between Expressway-E and Expressway-C.
Candidates are strongly encouraged to practice similar setups in a lab environment.

Exam Strategy & Test-Day Tips

  • Start with strong areas: Answer Expressway configuration and Hybrid questions first.
  • Manage time: Reserve at least 50 minutes for scenario-based questions.
  • Use the Leads4Pass VCE simulator to reduce anxiety and build exam confidence.
  • Analyze mistakes: Focus on keywords like “Traversal Zone,” “Hybrid Service Connector,” etc.

Effective repetition and time control can significantly boost your pass rate.

Latest Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions & Answers

Number of exam questions Related
15 (Free) Cisco CCNP

Question 1:

A Webex administrator is configuring the Webex Control Hub to enable enterprise users to sign into Webex securely by authenticating to the IdP of the organization. To conform to the SAML specification, to what can the NameID format be set?

A. urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:nameid-format:unspecified

B. urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:1.1:nameid-format:emailAddress

C. urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:nameid-format:transient

D. urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:1.1:nameid-format:emailAddress

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

Why would a Cisco Jabber contact under Hybrid Messaging Integration be grayed out?

A. The contact uses Cisco Webex Teams and Jabber and remains as Do not Disturb for 30 minutes.

B. The contact was using only Cisco Webex Teams and changed the status to Away.

C. The contact set Out of the O ce for Cisco Webex Teams.

D. The other user has not used Cisco Webex Teams or Jabber within the last 72 hours, so they are ofiine.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The other user has not used Webex App or Jabber within the last 72 hours. The Message Connector destroys the XMPP session it was holding for the offline user\'s Webex App. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/hybridservices/messageservice/cmgt_b_spark-hybrid-message-deployment-guide/cmgt_b_spark-hybrid-message-deployment-guide_chapter_00.html

Question 3:

A company is installing Cisco Collaboration infrastructure and one of the requirements is that they must be able to communicate with many external parties that are using H.323 and SIP. Internally they want to register the endpoints only on SIP.

Which functionality would describe the feature that needs to be enabled and where to achieve this?

A. Interworking in Expressway-C

B. Transcoding in Cisco Unified Communications Manager

C. Transcoding in Expressway-C

D. Interworking in Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

What is the result if force encryption for media is enabled in the Expressway on a zone that points to a system/endpoint that is not configured for encryption?

A. The call is dropped.

B. The call works with one end only sending encrypted media.

C. The call renegotiates for unencrypted media.

D. The call uses encryption if available, or it falls back to unencrypted media.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

When deploying an Expressway Core and Expressway Edge cluster for mobile and remote access, which TLS verify subject name must be configured on the Expressway-E UC traversal zone?

A. Webex CUSP Cluster Name

B. Expressway-E Cluster Name

C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Publisher FQDN

D. Expressway-C Cluster Name

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

What are the steps to access the Service Setup Wizard during the first setup of the Expressway server to license the server?

A. Factory reset the Expressway server to pass from Smart Licensing to PAK-based licensing.

B. From the GUI of the Expressway server, go to Status> Overview> Run service setup.

C. Factory reset the Expressway server to pass from Expressway-C to Expressway-E.

D. From the GUI of the Expressway server, go to Maintenance> Option keys> First Setup Wizard.

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

A Webex engineer is configuring SSO in Control Hub with Active Directory Federation Services. The engineer wants to authenticate users for all the applications that they are given rights to. The engineer also wants to eliminate further prompts when users switch applications during a particular session. Which action tells ADFS the fields to map to Webex to identify a user?

A. Send LDAP attributes as claims.

B. Create claim rules for Webex authentication

C. Add a relying party trust to the ADFS.

D. Map the E-mail-addresses LDAP attribute to the uid outgoing claim type.

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

An administrator must configure the DNS SRV records for Mobile and Remote Access for a company with the domain example.com, the Expressway-E FQDN is ExpE.example.com, and the Expressway-C FQDN is Exp-C.example.com. What must the administrator configure to allow external clients to discover the Expressway-E server?

A. SRV record _collab-edge._tls.example.com that resolves to ExpE.example.com on port 8443

B. SRV record _cisco-uds._tcp.example.com that resolves to ExpE.example.com on port 5061

C. SRV record _cisco-uds._tcp.example.com that resolves to ExpC.example.com on port 8443

D. SRV record _collab-edge._tls.example.com that resolves ta ExpE.example.com on port 5061

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?

A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.

B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.

C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.

D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.

Correct Answer: B

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Latest Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions 10

A Cisco Webex device on an enterprise network has identified the given STUN round-trip delays in milliseconds to the enterprise Video Mesh clusters and two Webex Cloud Media clusters during the call setup. Which correct sequence of clusters is the client connecting to?

A. US West Coast WCMC. If US West Cost WCMC is full, then Europe WCMC because clients select clusters in the order of SRT delays.

B. DC Europe. If DC Europe is full, DC APAC because clients select on-premises clusters in the order of SRT delays before using cloud resources,

C. DC Europe. If DC Europe is full, US West Coast WCMC because clients select resources in the order of SRT delays but ignore SRTs greater than 250 ms

D. US West Coast WCMC. Clients continuously monitor DC US cluster and reconnect when DC US are available to save bandwidth.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Local reachable Video Mesh resources are tried first, in order of lowest SRT delay. When all local resources are exhausted, the participant connects to the cloud.

While the preference for node selection is your locally deployed Video Mesh nodes, we support a scenario where, if the STUN round-trip (SRT) delay to an on-premises Video Mesh cluster exceeds the tolerable round-trip delay of 250 ms (which usually happens if the on-premises cluster is configured in a different continent), then the system selects the closest cloud media node in that geography instead of a Video Mesh node. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/wbxt/videomesh/cmgt_b_webex-video-mesh-deployment-guide/cmgt_b_hybrid-media-deployment-guide_chapter_010.html

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

Latest Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions 11

What are "Type" field values for this Expressway servers zone configuration?

A. Expressway-C "DNS", Expressway-E "Traversal server"

B. Expressway-C "Traversal server", Expressway-E "Traversal client"

C. Expressway-C "Neighbor", Expressway-E "Neighbor"

D. Expressway-C "Traversal client", Expressway-E "Traversal server"

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

Which two licenses are required for the B2B feature to work? (Choose two.)

A. Traversal Server

B. TURN Relays

C. Rich Media Sessions

D. Advanced Networking

E. Device Provisioning

Correct Answer: AC

Question 13:

Which connection does the traversal zone configuration define?

A. Expressway-E and Collaboration Endpoints

B. Cisco UC and Cisco Unified Presence Server

C. Cisco Expressway-C and Cisco Expressway-E platforms

D. Cisco UCS E-Series and Cisco UCM

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X8-11/Cisco-Expressway-Basic-Configuration-Deployment-Guide-X8-11-4.pdf

Question 14:

Which two statements about Cisco Webex Video Mesh Nodes are true? (Choose two.)

A. When Expressway Core works with VMN clusters, Expressway Core decides which VMN is used for signaling/media connection.

B. Cloud-registered devices choose a VMN cluster based on the lowest STUN round trip delay.

C. The cascading traffic between VMN must bypass the firewall.

D. When Cisco Unified Communications Manager works with multiple VMNs, Cisco Unified CM decides which VMN is used for signaling connection.

E. A VMN can terminate a media connection while operating in maintenance mode.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator attempted to log in, but Jabber clients cannot log in via mobile and remote access. How is this issue resolved?

Latest Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions 15

A. Skype for Business mode must be disabled on the DNS server because it conflicts with Jabber login requirements.

B. The domain pod1.local must be deprovisioned from the Webex cloud for Jabber logins.

C. A DNS SRV record must be created for _collab-edge._tls.pod1.local that points to the Expressway-E.

D. The username [email protected] is invalid. The user should instead sign-in simply as jabberuser.

Correct Answer: C

...

Future Trends in Cisco Collaboration (2025 and Beyond)

The future of Cisco Collaboration lies in AI, zero-trust security, and hybrid cloud integration.
As a CLCEI-certified professional, you’ll be at the center of these transformations:

  • AI-driven meeting intelligence via Webex AI Assistant.
  • Zero-Trust Collaboration Frameworks integrating OAuth and MDM security.
  • Multi-cloud compatibility between Cisco Expressway, Zoom, and Microsoft Teams.
  • API-driven automation using Webex REST APIs for meeting scheduling.

Cisco-certified experts will play key roles in shaping secure, intelligent enterprise communication.

Career Path and Salary Growth After Certification

Earning the Cisco 300-820 certification opens the door to advanced roles within the CCNP Collaboration pathway.

Next steps include:

  • 350-801 CLCOR – Core Collaboration Exam
  • Cisco DevNet Specialist – Automation & Development
  • CCIE Collaboration – Expert-level certification

According to Glassdoor 2025, professionals holding Cisco Collaboration certifications earn 22–35% higher average salaries globally.

FAQs

Q1: Are Leads4Pass 300-820 dumps updated to the latest version?
Yes. Leads4Pass updates all exam questions weekly based on Cisco’s latest blueprint.

Q2: How can I open the VCE file?
Use the VCE Exam Simulator, which perfectly replicates the real Cisco test interface.

Q3: Does passing 300-820 automatically earn the CCNP certification?
No. You must also pass the 350-801 CLCOR core exam to achieve CCNP Collaboration.

Q4: How long is the certification valid?
Cisco certifications remain valid for 3 years, renewable via Continuing Education (CE) credits.

Q5: Does Leads4Pass offer after-sale support?
Yes. They provide 365 updates and a 7-day refund guarantee.

Conclusion

You now have a complete understanding of the Cisco 300-820 exam, including the latest syllabus, technical focus areas, and the most effective study approach.
By combining hands-on lab experience with the Leads4Pass 300-820 dumps PDF and VCE simulations, you can confidently aim for success on your first attempt.

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Start your journey to becoming a certified Cisco Collaboration professional today.

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Read CCDP 300-920 dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questions Exam name Release time From Previous issue
15 Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX) Sep 21, 2022 leads4pass Aug 26, 2022

New Question 1:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q1

Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user. Which code completes the code to create the request?

A. xmlhttp.open("GET", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

B. xmlhttp.open("PATCH", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

C. xmlhttp.open("PUT", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

D. xmlhttp.open("POST", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

Correct Answer: D

The post method can be used for the HTTP request that sets up a personal meeting room PIN for a user.

New Question 2:

Which expression is a valid Webex Teams webhook filter?

A. [email protected]+roomId=abc123

B. [email protected]=abc123

C. [email protected]=abc123

D. [email protected],roomId=abc123

Correct Answer: C

You can also use more than one filter in a webhook. To use multiple filters, combine them with the "and" symbol. For example, to create a webhook that only sends notifications when a specific person performs an action in a specific room, such as sending a message or creating a membership, combine the personEmail and roomId filters.

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

New Question 3:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which code for blank lines 26, 27, and 28 gives invitees 900 seconds before the scheduled time to join the meeting, sets the meeting to last for 30 minutes, and sets the meeting timezone to Pacific US?

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q3-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://github.com/cisco-ie/webex-api-client

New Question 4:

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user "Read-only administrator privileges" in the Webex Control Hub.

B. Create an Integration app with all "spark_compliance" read scopes enabled.

C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API "SetUser" to update the user\'s "" value to "TRUE".

D. Configure the user as a "Compliance Officer" in the Webex Control Hub.

E. Create a Bot app with all "webex_compliance" read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/esp/Webex-Teams-Security-Frequently-Asked-Questions.pdf

New Question 5:

What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.

B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.

C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.

D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://pdfslide.net/documents/webex-we.html (p.216)

New Question 6:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q6

Refer to the exhibit. What is the Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status code, based on this code snippet?

A. 401

B. 403

C. 429

D. 501

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/get-message-details

New Question 7:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q7

Refer to the exhibit. On line 4, the script retrieves a context from a DOM element that was generated from a server-side component. How does that server-side component obtain the value for the `context\' element?

A. by opening a dialog asking the end-user to paste his personal access token

B. by completing an authorization code grant flow using the identifier and secret of an OAuth integration

C. by embedding the access token of a Bot account

D. by creating a guest token using the identifier and secret of a Guest Issuer application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q8

Refer to the exhibit. What causes the error message?

A. xapi must be enabled for promises.

B. HttpClient AllowInsecureHTTPS has not been enabled.

C. The NODE_TLS_REJECT_UNAUTHORIZED environment variable must be set to 0.

D. HttpClient must be changes to HttpsClient.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://help.webex.com/en-us/nthg6le/Sending-HTTP-Requests-from-a-Board-Room-or-Desk-Device

New Question 9:

A Webex Teams bot is deployed but soon it stops responding. Which two explanations are the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. A new webhook was created, which marks the old webhook as inactive.

B. The web server that is set to receive webhooks is not configured to return a 200 message. And the webhook is disabled.

C. The webhook secret is expired and must be refreshed.

D. The refresh token is not being used.

E. The bot owner regenerated the access token on developer.webex.com.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://developer.authorize.net/api/reference/features/webhooks.html

New Question 10:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q10

Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\' exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\' request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording file download links?

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam answer q10

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

With CE 9.8 and above, which two statements are correct when an application is sending and receiving data over a connection established with an xAPI interface? (Choose two.)

A. All Serial, SSH, and WebSockets can be used to send and receive data.

B. HttpClient can be used to send requests but not receive responses.

C. HttpFeedback is the only option to receive data.

D. The HttpClient command can be used to send requests and read responses over HTTP.

E. WebSockets is the only option to send and receive data.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce98/sx-mx-dx-room-kit-boards-customization-guide-ce98.pdf

New Question 12:

Which element is needed to build a Web application that authenticates Webex users and can post messages under the user\'s identity?

A. OAuth integration configured with the `messages_write\' scope

B. bot access token

C. Guest Issuer application

D. self-signed certificate that is created by a public authority

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/blog/real-world-walkthrough-of-building-an-oauth-webex-integration

New Question 13:

Which two filters are valid for limiting a webhook? (Choose two.)

A. roomId=

B. personId!=

C. spaceId=

D. personId=$spaceId=

E. personId=$roomId=

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

New Question 14:

Which Webex Teams webhook resource type indicates that a user interacted with a card?

A. buttonActions

B. attachmentActions

C. webhookCardActions

D. cardActions

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

New Question 15:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q15

Refer to the exhibit. An end user reports that the speed dial button is not working on their Webex Device, and when loading into the Macro Editor, this error was presented. On which line is the incorrect syntax?

A. line 4

B. line 14

C. line 15

D. line 22

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/telepresence-and-video/ce9-2-1-macro-framework-discussions/td-p/3220093

...

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New Question 1:

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting to the Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering

B. Connection Reputation Filtering

C. Talos Reputation Filtering

D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

Correct Answer: A


New Question 2:

Which benefit does enabling external spam quarantine on Cisco SMA provide?

A. ability to back up spam quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console

B. access to the spam quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete

C. ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate

D. ability to consolidate spam quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESA to one central console

Correct Answer: D


New Question 3:

What are the two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. work queue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

Correct Answer: BD


New Question 4:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions

Correct Answer: AD


New Question 5:

Which setting affects the aggressiveness of spam detection?

A. protection level

B. spam threshold

C. spam timeout

D. maximum depth of recursion scan

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118220-technote-esa-00.html


New Question 6:

What is the order of virus scanning when multilayer antivirus scanning is configured?

A. The default engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

B. The Sophos engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

C. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the default engine scans for viruses second.

D. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the Sophos engine scans for viruses second.

Correct Answer: C

If you configure multi-layer anti-virus scanning, the Cisco appliance performs virus scanning with the McAfee engine first and the Sophos engine second. It scans messages using both engines unless the McAfee engine detects a virus. If the McAfee engine detects a virus, the Cisco appliance performs the anti-virus actions (repairing, quarantining, etc.) defined for the mail policy.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01011.html


New Question 7:

Which action must be taken before a custom quarantine that is being used can be deleted?

A. Delete the quarantine that is assigned to a filter.

B. Delete the quarantine that is not assigned to a filter.

C. Delete only the unused quarantine.

D. Remove the quarantine from the message action of a filter.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011111.html


New Question 8:

What is the maximum message size that can be configured for encryption on the Cisco ESA?

A. 20 MB

B. 25 MB

C. 15 MB

D. 30 MB

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/117972-technote-esa-00.html


New Question 9:

An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added to the dictionary?

A. mycompany.com

B. Alpha Beta

C. ^Alpha\ Beta$

D. [email protected]

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/email-security-appliance/whitepaper_C11-737596.html


New Question 10:

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter

B. antivirus scanning

C. outbreak filter

D. antispam scanning

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/214269-filter-to-handle-messages-that-skipped-d.html


New Question 11:

Which two query types are available when an LDAP profile is configured? (Choose two.)

A. proxy consolidation

B. user

C. recursive

D. group

E. routing

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011010.html


New Question 12:

Which action is a valid fallback when a client certificate is unavailable during SMTP authentication on Cisco ESA?

A. LDAP Query

B. SMTP AUTH

C. SMTP TLS

D. LDAP BIND

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011011.html


New Question 13:

Email encryption is configured on a Cisco ESA that uses CRES.

Which action is taken on a message when CRES is unavailable?

A. It is required.

B. It is sent in clear text.

C. It is dropped and an error message is sent to the sender.

D. It is encrypted by a Cisco encryption appliance.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/117863-configure-esa-00.html


New Question 14:

Which two features of Cisco Email Security are added to a Sender Group to protect an organization against email threats? (Choose two.)

A. NetFlow

B. geolocation-based filtering

C. heuristic-based filtering

D. senderbase reputation filtering

E. content disarm and reconstruction

Correct Answer: CD


New Question 15:

Which two steps configure Forged Email Detection? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a content dictionary with executive email addresses.

B. Configure a filter to use the Forged Email Detection rule and dictionary.

C. Configure a filter to check the Header From value against the Forged Email Detection dictionary.

D. Enable Forged Email Detection on the Security Services page.

E. Configure a content dictionary with friendly names.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://explore.cisco.com/esa-feature-enablement/user-guide-for-async-11

...

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The latest updated Cisco 300-710 exam questions are shared online

Cisco 300-710 exam questions and answers have been updated to share online first, you can download Cisco 300-710 dumps with PDF and VCE exam engine https://www.leads4pass.com/300-710.html, practice 238 latest Cisco 300-710 exam questions.

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Online practice for some of the latest Cisco 300-710 exam questions available online:

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps to restore an automatic device registration failure on the standby Cisco FMC from the left into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


New Question 2:

What is the result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?

A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing connections.

B. Integrated Routing and Bridging are supported on the master unit.

C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit fails.

D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.

Check answer ↴


New Question 3:

Which two conditions are necessary for high availability to function between two Cisco FTD devices? (Choose two.)

A. The units must be the same version

B. Both devices can be part of a different group that must be in the same domain when configured within the FMC.

C. The units must be different models if they are part of the same series.

D. The units must be configured only for firewall routed mode.

E. The units must be the same model.

Check answer ↴


New Question 4:

On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?

A. transparent inline mode

B. TAP mode

C. strict TCP enforcement

D. propagate link state

Check answer ↴


New Question 5:

What are the minimum requirements to deploy a managed device inline?

A. inline interfaces, security zones, MTU, and mode

B. passive interface, MTU, and mode

C. inline interfaces, MTU, and mode

D. passive interface, security zone, MTU, and mode

Check answer ↴


New Question 6:

What is the difference between an inline and an inline tap on Cisco Firepower?

A. Inline tap mode can send a copy of the traffic to another device.

B. Inline tap mode does full packet capture.

C. Inline mode cannot do SSL decryption.

D. Inline mode can drop malicious traffic.

Check answer ↴


New Question 7:

With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic that passes through the appliance?

A. inline set

B. passive

C. routed

D. inline tap

Check answer ↴


New Question 8:

Which two deployment types support high availability? (Choose two.)

A. transparent

B. routed

C. clustered

D. intra-chassis multi-instance

E. virtual appliance in public cloud

Check answer ↴


New Question 9:

Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?

A. STP

B. HSRP

C. GLBP

D. VRRP

Check answer ↴


New Question 10:

Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?

A. passive

B. inline

C. ERSPAN

D. TAP

Check answer ↴


New Question 11:

Which Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, which two interface settings are required when configuring a routed interface? (Choose two.)

A. Redundant Interface

B. EtherChannel

C. Speed

D. Media Type

E. Duplex

Check answer ↴


New Question 12:

Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported in Firepower Threat Defense without using FlexConfig? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP

B. OSPF

C. static routing

D. IS-IS

E. BGP

Check answer ↴


New Question 13:

Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?

A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses.

B. deny IP any

C. no policy rule is included

D. permit IP any

Check answer ↴


New Question 14:

What are two application layer preprocessors? (Choose two.)

A. CIFS

B. IMAP

C. SSL

D. DNP3

E. ICMP

Check answer ↴


New Question 15:

Which two OSPF routing features are configured in Cisco FMC and propagated to Cisco FTD? (Choose two.)

A. OSPFv2 with IPv6 capabilities

B. virtual links

C. SHA authentication to OSPF packets

D. area boundary router type 1 LSA filtering

E. MD5 authentication to OSPF packets

Check answer ↴

...

Verify the answer:

Numbers: Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10 Q11 Q12 Q13 Q14 Q15
Answers: IMAGE C AE D C A B AB A B CE BE C BC BE

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200-901 dumps to help you pass the DevNet Associate Core exam

200-901 exam

200-901 Dumps is the best exam material for you to pass the DevNet Associate Core exam. 200-901 DEVASC Exam: "Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms"
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Latest Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions Free sharing

End of article detection answer

Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command-line driven interface

Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Question 5:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports "time exceeded in-transit". What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 7:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning-tree

D. IPv4 address

Question 8:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports "communication administratively prohibited". What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus dropping traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Question 9:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Question 11:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Question 12:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements a desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Question 13:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\'s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Verify answer:

Number: Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10 Q11 Q12 Q13
Answers: C AC C A B D A A A D B B B

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New 1Y0-341 Exam Dumps V13.02 For Citrix ADC Advanced Topics – Security, Management, and Optimization Certification

New 1Y0-341 exam dumps V13.02 are online for Citrix ADC Advanced Topics - Security, Management, and Optimization certification, which ensures that you can pass Citrix ADC Advanced Topics - Security, Management, and Optimization certification exam on the first try.
1Y0-341 Exam Dumps V13.02 page https://www.leads4pass.com/1y0-341.html is the latest version of the Citrix CCP-N certification exam questions for candidates in Citrix Security, Administration, and Optimization.
New 1Y0-341 exam dumps are based on the exam objectives. You can read 1Y0-341 Citrix exam dumps online for good preparation.

Citrix 1Y0-341 Exam Details

1Y0-341 is the Citrix ADC Advanced Topics - Security, Management, and Optimization exam code, more details are shared below:

Vendor: Citrix
Exam Code: 1Y0-341
Exam Name: Citrix ADC Advanced Topics - Security, Management, and Optimization
Certification: CCP-N
Number of Items: 69 question exam written
language: English
Format
: multiple choice
Passing score: 66%

1Y0-341 Free dumps for you to check online

Question 1:

A Citrix Engineer needs to set up access to an internal application for external partners.

Which two entities must the engineer configure on the Citrix ADC to support this? (Choose two.)

A. SAML Policy

B. SAMLldP Profile

C. SAMLldP Policy

D. SAML Action

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2015/04/09/how-to-use-saml-authentication-with- storefront-2-6/


Question 2:

Which action ensures that content is retrieved from the server of origin?

A. CACHE

B. MAY_CACHE

C. NOCACHE

D. MAY_NOCACHE

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/integrated- caching/ configure- cookies-headers-and-polling.html


Question 3:

Scenario: During application troubleshooting, a Citrix Engineer notices that response traffic received from a protected web application is NOT matching what the webserver is sending out. The auditor is concerned that a Man-In-The-Middle attack is in progress.

Which action is the Citrix Web App Firewall performing that would trigger this false positive?

A. Removing the Last-Modified header

B. Inserting a hidden form field

C. Removing the Accept-Encoding header

D. Modifying and adding cookies in the response

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which license must be present on the Citrix ADC for the Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Service to generate HDX Insight reports that present one-year \'s worth of data?

A. Advanced

B. Premium Plus

C. Premium

D. Standard

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A Citrix Engineer is notified that no traffic is reaching the protected web application. While investigating, the

engineer notices that the Citrix Web App Firewall policy has 516,72 hits.

What should the engineer check next?

A. The security checks in the assigned profile

B. The HTML Error Object

C. The policy expression

D. The security checks in the global default profile

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configures Citrix Web App Firewall to protect an application. Users report that they are NOT able to log on. The engineer enables a Start URL relaxation for the path //login.aspx.

What is the effect of the Start URL relaxation on the application?

A. Access to the path /login.aspx is unblocked.

B. Access to the path /login.aspx is blocked.

C. External users are blocked from the path /login.aspx. Internal users are permitted to the path / login.aspx.

D. Non-administrative users are blocked from the path /login.aspx Administrative users are permitted to the path /login.aspx.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer wants to protect a web application using Citrix Web App Firewall. The engineer enables the Learn action for the Start URL, HTML, Cross-Site Scripting, and HTML SQL Injection protections. The engineer assigns this profile to a policy, which is then bound to the virtual server.

Which two items can the engineer check to determine that the Learn action is NOT capturing any rules? (Choose two.)

A. The HTML Error Object is configured for the profile.

B. Enough space is left on the /flash file system.

C. The as learn process is running on the Citrix ADC appliance.

D. The Learn database is less than 20 MB.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 8:

A Citrix Engineer wants to delegate management of Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to a junior team member.

Which assigned role will limit the team member to view all application-related data?

A. read-only

B. appReadonly

C. admin

D. app admin

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management- service/setting-up/ configuring- role-based-access-control.html


Question 9:

Which Front End Optimization technique causes the Citrix ADC to resize images before sending them to the client?

A. Minify

B. Shrink to Attributes

C. Compression

D. Inlining

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/front-end- optimization.html


Question 10:

A Citrix Engineer wants the Citrix Web App Firewall to respond with a page stored on the Citrix ADC when a violation is detected.

Which profile setting accomplishes this?

A. Redirect URL

B. RFC Profile

C. Default Request

D. HTML Error Object

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX140293


Question 11:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has a pair of Citrix ADC VPX appliances configured as a High- Availability (HA) pair and hosted on a Citrix Hypervisor. The engineer wants to use Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to monitor and manage the 35 web applications on the appliances. The engineer has imported Citrix ADM virtual appliance to Citrix Hypervisor. The engineer has also configured the management IP address settings and has added 35 instances. However, some of the instances are NOT reporting any data.

Which two areas can the engineer check to determine the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. A Premium platform license must be configured on each instance.

B. AppFlow must be enabled on each instance.

C. The Citrix ADM license must be installed.

D. An SSL certificate must be installed on the Citrix ADM appliance.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 12:

What is required for connecting a data center to the Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Service?

A. Instance

B. Configuration Job

C. Agent

D. Syslog

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management- service/citrix-applicationdelivery-management-service.html


Question 13:

In which order is a client request to a protected web application processed?

A. CitrixWebApp Firewall, Load Balancing, Caching, Rewrite

B. Caching, Citrix Web App Firewall, Load Balancing, Rewrite

C. Citrix Web App Firewall, Caching, Load Balancing, Rewrite

D. Load Balancing, Citrix Web App Firewall, Caching, Rewrite

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which feature of Learning should a Citrix Engineer configure to direct Citrix Web App Firewall to learn from specific sessions?

A. Advanced policy expression filter

B. Default policy expression filter

C. Trusted Learning Clients list

D. Manage Content Types for Safe Commerce

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/application- firewall/profiles/learning.html


Question 15:

Which Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Analytics page allows an engineer to monitor the metrics of end-point analysis and authentication failures?

A. Gateway Insight

B. HDX Insight

C. Web Insight

D. Security Insight

Correct Answer: A

......

New 1Y0-341 Exam Dumps V13.02 download: click here for you to get a high score on the Citrix ADC Advanced Topics - Security, Management, and Optimization exam. Helping your future take you to the next level.

Real Microsoft MTA 98-361 dumps with actual Q&A

Microsoft MTA 98-361 dumps is one of the Microsoft MTA certification exams and exists to address the 98-361 Software Development Fundamentals exam.
When preparing for the Microsoft 98-361 exam, candidates can choose leads4pass' real 98-361 dumps to study all the actual 98-361 exam questions and try to understand the answers clearly.
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Question 1:

An application presents the user with a graphical interface. The interface includes buttons that the user clicks to perform tasks. Each time the user clicks a button, a method is called that corresponds to that button. Which term is used to describe this programming model?

A. Functional

B. Service oriented

C. Structured

D. Event driven

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A data warehouse database is designed to:

A. Enable business decisions by collecting, consolidating, and organizing data.

B. Support a large number of concurrent users.

C. Support real-time business operations.

D. Require validation of incoming data during real-time business transactions.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which type of application has the following characteristics when it is installed?

Runs continuously in the background by default when the startup type is set to automatic

Presents no user interface

A.

Windows Service

B.

Windows Forms

C.

Console-based

D.

Batch file

Correct Answer: A

A Windows service runs in the background and has no interface.


Question 4:

You are creating a routine that will perform calculations by using a repetition structure. You need to ensure that the entire loop executes at least once. Which looping structure should you use?

A. For

B. While

C. Do,,While

D. For. ,,Each

Correct Answer: C

In a Do..While loop the test is at the end of the structure, so it will be executed at least once.


Question 5:

Which type of function can a derived class override?

A. a non-virtual public member function

B. a private virtual function

C. a protected virtual member function

D. a static function

Correct Answer: C

You can override virtual functions defined in a base class from the Visual Studio. The override modifier is required to extend or modify the abstract or virtual implementation of an inherited method, property, indexer, or event.


Question 6:

You are writing a Web application that processes room reservation requests. You need to verify that the room that a guest has selected is not already reserved by another guest. Which type of programming should you use to determine whether the room is still available when the request is made?

A. client-side

B. server-side

C. multithreaded

D. batch processing

Correct Answer: B

For room availability we need to check a database located on a server.


Question 7:

You need to group all the style settings into a separate file that can be applied to all the pages in a Web application. What should you do?

A. Use a Cascading Style Sheet (CSS).

B. Use inline styles.

C. Use an Extensible Markup Language (XML) schema.

D. Use a WebKit.

Correct Answer: A

Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) is a style sheet language used for describing the look and formatting of a document written in a markup language. CSS is designed primarily to enable the separation of document content from document presentation, including elements such as the layout, colors, and fonts.


Question 8:

All objects in .NET inherit from which item?

A. the System.Object class

B. a value type

C. a reference type

D. the System.Type class

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which service can host an ASP.NET application?

A. Internet Information Services

B. Cluster Services

C. Remote Desktop Services

D. Web Services

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

You are developing a webpage that enables students to manage races.

The webpage will display two lists: past races and upcoming races. The page also contains a sidebar with contact information and a panel with social media settings that can be edited. Race results can be shared on social media.

How many components will be on the webpage?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

You are creating an ASP. NET Web application.

Which line of code should you use to require a control to process on the computer that hosts the application?

A. runat= "server"

B. redirect*="HostPage. htm"

C. AutoEventWireup="true"

D. defaultRedirect="ServerPage. htm"

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You need to ensure the data integrity of a database by resolving insertion, update, and deletion anomalies. Which term is used to describe this process in relational database design?

A. Normalization

B. Integration

C. Isolation

D. Resolution

Correct Answer: A

Database normalization is the process of organizing the fields and tables of a relational database to minimize redundancy. Normalization usually involves dividing large tables into smaller (and less redundant) tables and defining relationships between them. The objective is to isolate data so that additions, deletions, and modifications of a field can be made in just one table and then propagated through the rest of the database using the defined relationships.


Question 13:

The purpose of the Catch section in an exception handler is to:

A. Conclude the execution of the application.

B. Break out of the error handler.

C. Execute code only when an exception is thrown.

D. Execute code regardless of whether an exception is thrown.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

You need to evaluate the following expression:

(A>B) AND (C

What is the value of this expression if A=3, B=4, C=4, and D=5?

A. 0

B. 4

C. 5

D. False

E. Null

F. True

Correct Answer: D

A>B is false.


Question 15:

You need to group all the style settings into a separate file that can be applied to all the pages in a Web application. What should you do?

A. Use a Cascading Style Sheet (CSS).

B. Use an Extensible Markup Language (XML) schema.

C. Use inline styles.

D. Use a WebKit.

Correct Answer: A

Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) is a style sheet language used for describing the look and formatting of a document written in a markup language. CSS is designed primarily to enable the separation of document content from document presentation, including elements such as the layout, colors, and fonts.

......

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How to obtain Citrix CCP-N 1Y0-341 certification?

Citrix CCP-N 1Y0-341 certification

Do you know the process of the Citrix exam? Citrix and other brand exam certifications are roughly the same, the Citrix certification exam is an incremental process. You need to go from basic to advance to expert step by step.
CCP-N 1Y0-341 belongs to the advanced level, so you need to pass the basic certification before participating in the advanced certification. So you need to take the Citrix CCA-N exam. To become CCA-N, you must pass one of the two exams. Exam 1Y0-230 or Exam 1Y0-240. As an expert, you need to take the CCE-N certification exam.

If you already have the Citrix CCA-N certification, then you should take the CCP-N exam. Here I will share the CCP-N 1Y0-341 exam practice. You can participate in the online exam test to improve your own strength.
The free exam questions and answers are part of the leads4pass 1Y0-341 dumps, and the complete 1Y0-341 exam questions are at https://www.leads4pass.com/1y0-341.html (Total Questions: 107 Q&A).

Participate in the Citrix 1Y0-341 exam practice test

The answer is announced at the end of the article, you can compare the answer at the end

Question 1:

A Citrix Engineer needs to set up access to an internal application for external partners.

Which two entities must the engineer configure on the Citrix ADC to support this? (Choose two.)

A. SAML Policy

B. SAMLldP Profile

C. SAMLldP Policy

D. SAML Action

 

Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2015/04/09/how-to-use-saml-authentication-with-storefront-2-6/


Question 2:

Which action ensures that content is retrieved from the server of origin?

A. CACHE

B. MAY_CACHE

C. NOCACHE

D. MAY_NOCACHE

 

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/integrated-caching/configure-cookies-headers-and-polling.html


Question 3:

Which license must be present on the Citrix ADC for the Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Service to generate HDX Insight reports that present one year\'s worth of data?

A. Advanced

B. Premium Plus

C. Premium

D. Standard

 


Question 4:

Which Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) feature can a Citrix Engineer use to narrow a list of Citrix ADC devices based on pre-defined criteria?

A. AutoScale Groups

B. Instance Groups

C. Configuration Template

D. Tags

E. Agent

 


Question 5:

Which protection can a Citrix Engineer implement to prevent a hacker from extracting a customer list from the company website?

A. Cross-Site Request Forgeries (CSRF)

B. Form Field Consistency

C. HTML Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

D. HTML SQL Injection

 


Question 6:

A Citrix Engineer is notified that no traffic is reaching the protected web application. While investigating, the

engineer notices that the Citrix Web App Firewall policy has 516,72 hits.

What should the engineer check next?

A. The security checks in the assigned profile

B. The HTML Error Object

C. The policy expression

D. The security checks in the global default profile

 


Question 7:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configures Citrix Web App Firewall to protect an application. Users report that they are NOT able to log on. The engineer enables a Start URL relaxation for the path //login.aspx.

What is the effect of the Start URL relaxation on the application?

A. Access to the path /login.aspx is unblocked.

B. Access to the path /login.aspx is blocked.

C. External users are blocked from the path /login.aspx. Internal users are permitted to the path / login.aspx.

D. Non-administrative users are blocked from the path /login.aspx Administrative users are permitted to the path /login.aspx.

 


Question 8:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer wants to protect a web application using Citrix Web App Firewall. The engineer enables the Learn action for the Start URL, HTML, Cross-Site Scripting, and HTML SQL Injection protections. The engineer assigns this profile to a policy, which is then bound to the virtual server.

Which two items can the engineer check to determine that the Learn action is NOT capturing any rules? (Choose two.)

A. The HTML Error Object is configured for the profile.

B. Enough space is left on the /flash file system.

C. The aslearn process is running on the Citrix ADC appliance.

D. The Learn database is less than 20 MB.

 


Question 9:

A Citrix Engineer wants to delegate management of Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to a junior team member.

Which assigned role will limit the team member to view all application-related data?

A. readonly

B. appReadonly

C. admin

D. appAdmin

 

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management-service/setting-up/configuring-role-based-access-control.html


Question 10:

Which Front End Optimization technique causes the Citrix ADC to resize images before sending them to the client?

A. Minify

B. Shrink to Attributes

C. Compression

D. Inlining

 

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/front-end-optimization.html


Question 11:

A Citrix Engineer wants the Citrix Web App Firewall to respond with a page stored on the Citrix ADC when a violation is detected.

Which profile setting accomplishes this?

A. Redirect URL

B. RFC Profile

C. Default Request

D. HTML Error Object

 

Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX140293


Question 12:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has a pair of Citrix ADC VPX appliances configured as a High- Availability (HA) pair and hosted on a Citrix Hypervisor. The engineer wants to use Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to monitor and manage the 35 web applications on the appliances. The engineer has imported Citrix ADM virtual appliance to Citrix Hypervisor. The engineer has also configured the management IP address settings and has added the 35 instances. However, some of the instances are NOT reporting any data.

Which two areas can the engineer check to determine the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. A Premium platform license must be configured on each instance.

B. AppFlow must be enabled on each instance.

C. The Citrix ADM license must be installed.

D. An SSL certificate must be installed on the Citrix ADM appliance.

 


Question 13:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer implements Application-level Quality of Experience (AppQoE) to protect a web application. Shortly after that, users call to complain that nearly every request is being met with a Captcha.

What can the engineer do to improve the user experience?

A. Disable the Captcha.

B. Increase the DOS Attack Threshold.

C. Increase the Policy Queue Depth.

D. Increase the Session Life.

 


Question 14:

What is required for connecting a data center to the Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Service?

A. Instance

B. Configuration Job

C. Agent

D. Syslog

 

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management-service/citrix-applicationdelivery-management-service.html


Question 15:

In which order is a client request to a protected web application processed?

A. CitrixWebApp Firewall, Load Balancing, Caching, Rewrite

B. Caching, Citrix Web App Firewall, Load Balancing, Rewrite

C. Citrix Web App Firewall, Caching, Load Balancing, Rewrite

D. Load Balancing, Citrix Web App Firewall, Caching, Rewrite

Compare answers:

Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10 Q11 Q12 Q13 Q14 Q15
AB C C D D A A AC B B D CD B C C

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QUESTION 1

A wireless engineer must implement a corporate wireless network for a large company in the most efficient way
possible. The wireless network must support 32 VLANs for 300 employees in different departments. Which solution
must the engineer choose?

A. Configure a second WLC to support half of the APs in the deployment.
B. Configure one single SSID and implement Cisco ISE for VLAN assignment according to different user roles.
C. Configure different AP groups to support different VLANs, so that all of the WLANs can be broadcast on both radios.
D. Configure 16 WLANs to be broadcast on the 2.4-GHz band and 16 WLANs to be broadcast on the 5.0- GHz band.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q1

 

QUESTION 2

After receiving an alert about a rogue AP, a network engineer logs into Cisco Prime Infrastructure and looks at the floor
map where the AP that detected the rogue is located. The map is synchronized with a mobility services engine that
determines that the rogue device is actually inside the campus. The engineer determines that the rogue is a security
threat and decides to stop if from broadcasting inside the enterprise wireless network. What is the fastest way to disable the rogue?

A. Go to the location where the rogue device is indicated to be and disable the power.
B. Create an SSID similar to the rogue to disable clients from connecting to it.
C. Update the status of the rogue in Cisco Prime Infrastructure to contained.
D. Classify the rogue as malicious in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.

 

QUESTION 3

An engineer is implementing profiling for BYOD devices using Cisco ISE. When using a distributed model, which
persona must the engineer configure with the profiling service?

A. Policy Services Node
B. Device Admin Node
C. Monitor Node
D. Primary Admin Node

 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q4

An engineer deployed a Cisco WLC using local EAP. Users who are configured for EAP-PEAP cannot connect to the
network. Based on the local EAP debug controller provided, why is the client unable to connect?

A. The client is falling to accept certificate.
B. The Cisco WLC is configured for the incorrect date.
C. The user is using invalid credentials.

 

QUESTION 5

An engineer must track guest traffic flow using the WLAN infrastructure. Which Cisco CMX feature must be configured
and used to accomplish this tracking?

A. analytics
B. connect and engage
C. presence
D. detect and locate.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q5

 

QUESTION 6

Which two configurations are applied on the WLC to enable multicast, check multicast stream subscriptions, and stream content only to subscribed clients? (Choose two)

A. Enable IGMP snooping
B. Set the IGMP timeout to 180 seconds
C. Enable broadcast forwarding
D. Enable 802.3x flow control mode.
E. Set the AP multicast to 238.255.255.255

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/81671-multicast-wlc-lap.html

 

QUESTION 7

An engineer just added anew MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and wants to synchronize the MSE with the Cisco 5520
WLC, which is located behind a firewall in a DMZ. It is noticed that NMSP messages are failing between the two
devices. Which traffic must be allowed on the firewall to ensure that the MSE and WLC can communicate using NMSP?

A. TCP 1613
B. UDP 16113
C. TCP 16113
D. UDP 1613

hnps:\\'/vvw\vxJsco.com\\'c/en;us\\'support;docsAvJreless\\'5500-series-wJreless-controllers/113344- cuwn-ppm html
https:\\'/mrncciewxom/2014/09/25/what-is-nmsp/ https:\\'/mvwxiscoxomx/en\\'us\\'support/docs\\'wireless\\'mo

 

QUESTION 8

The IT manager is asking the wireless team to get a report for all guest user associations during the past two weeks. In
which two formats can Cisco Prime save this report? (Choose two.)

A. CSV
B. PDF
C. XLS
D. DOC
E. plain text

cisco 300-430 exam questions q8

 

QUESTION 9

What is the default NMSP echo interval between Cisco MSE and a Wireless LAN Controller?

A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

 

QUESTION 10

What must be configured on the Global Configuration page of the WLC for an access point to use 802.1x to authenticate to the wired infrastructure?

A. supplicant credentials
B. RADIUS shared secret
C. local access point credentials
D. TACACS server IP address.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q10

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q11

A network administrator deploys the DHCP profiler service in two ISE servers: 10.3.10.101 and 10.3.10.102. All BYOD
devices connecting to WLAN on VLAN63 have been incorrectly profiled and are assigned as unknown profiled
endpoints. Which action efficiently rectifies the issue according to Cisco recommendations?

A. Nothing needed to be added on the Cisco WLC or VLAN interface. The ISE configuration must be fixed.
B. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC.
C. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC and run the ip helper-address command under the VLAN interface to point to
DHCP and the two ISE servers.
D. Keep DHCP proxy enabled on the Cisco WLC and define helper-address under the VLAN interface to point to the
two ISE servers.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/110865-dhcp-wlc.html

 

QUESTION 12

Which two steps are needed to complete integration of the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and be able to track the location of clients/rogues on maps? (Choose two.)

A. Synchronize access points with the MSE.
B. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the CLI credentials.
C. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the Cisco Prime Infrastructure communication credentials
configured during set up.
D. Apply a valid license for Wireless Intrusion Prevention System.
E. Apply a valid license for location tracking.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/33/user/guide/bk_CiscoPrimeInfrastructure_3_3_0_UserGuide/bk_CiscoPrimeInfrastructure_3_3_0_UserGuide_chapter_0100110.html

 

QUESTION 13

An engineer has implemented advanced location services for a retail wireless deployment. The marketing department
wants to collect user demographic information in exchange for guest WLAN access and to have a customized portal per location hosted by the provider. Which social connector must be tied into Cisco CMX to provide this service?

A. Gmail
B. Google+
C. Facebook
D. MySpace

Verify answer:

Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10 Q11 Q12 Q13
B C A A C AC C AB B B C CE C

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1Y0-401 dumps
QUESTION 1
Why would the architect choose XenServer MPIO when configuring bonded network interfaces for guest VM networks?
A. It provides load balancing of VM traffic across multiple physical NIC interfaces at a per guest basis, and offers improved distribution of traffic across physical interfaces in the bond.
B. It sends all guest VM traffic in the bond to an active interface, which provides the best distribution of network load.
C. It uses a hashing algorithm, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
D. It uses a round robin load-balancing policy, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
How should the architect recommend that the target devices boot from the Provisioning Services server?
A. By configuring a Windows deployment server
B. By using SFTP
C. By using FTP
D. By using DHCP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which option requires the fewest components to implement a fault-tolerant, load-balanced solution for end- user access at each datacenter?
A. Two StoreFront servers in a single StoreFront server group.
B. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to a single StoreFront server.
C. Three NetScalers in a cluster, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
D. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Why is a design with 12 NetScaler appliances, in which each datacenter deploys an HA pair in the internal network for Gateway traffic and an HA pair in the DMZ for load balancing, the best remote access design? 1Y0-401 dumps
A. It allows end users to connect to their primary datacenter through a secure, reliable, and cost-effective solution.
B. It provides redundancy, while optimizing external WAN traffic.
C. It segments the Gateway and load-balancing features of the NetScaler appliances.
D. It allows for the expected expansion of remote access usage and provides SSL VPN functionality for future needs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario: CGE acquires a small energy company that is running MGMT, a proprietary 16-bit application. A Citrix Architect is tasked with deploying this application to the Executives/Management end-user group. The CIO mandates that a FlexCast model must be chosen that resembles this end-user group\'s existing delivery strategy.
It is important that a single-image deployment is utilized and that management effort is kept to a minimum for the update process. The availability of a fast rollback plan must also be available after upgrades, since it can often result in system instability.
Why is deploying MGMT in a Hosted Shared environment on Windows Server 2008 R2 with Machine Creation Services the best solution?
A. It offers a faster change process.
B. End users are already comfortable working in a shared environment.
C. It prevents XenApp server crashes.
D. It enables faster rollbacks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
CGE decided that all end users must use two-factor authentication to connect remotely to the Citrix environment. Which two sites will be able to support this requirement for Citrix Receiver for iOS and Android? (Choose two.)
A. Tulsa
B. Jurong
C. London
D. Odessa
E. Houston
F. Aberdeen
G. Makassar
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
Why is separating the workloads by roles to reflect the OU structure of Active Directory, creating a resource pool comprising a maximum of 24 XenServer hosts, and implementing a storage repository for virtual disks, XenMotion, high availability, and disaster recovery backups the best design solution?
A. It ensures the logical separation of infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads, and facilitates management and expansion capabilities.
B. It provides workload flexibility to more efficiently leverage available resources within a resource pool, and facilitates expansion options. In addition, daily backups create minimal downtime for critical workloads.
C. It separates infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads according to resource usage characteristics to avoid conflicts. In addition, it provides critical database services with sufficient workload-specific resources and failover capabilities.
D. It ensures the logical separation of all workloads and virtual desktops. In addition, the backup solution reduces the risk of data loss and minimizes downtime.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
Why is creating a resource pool comprising a maximum of 16 XenServer hosts, using a shared storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability, and replicating meta information to the disaster recovery site the best design solution?
A. It addresses all customer requirements by ensuring appropriate design of resource pools, high availability for critical workloads, and a new storage solution for disaster recovery purposes.
B. It ensures simple setup with a built-in failover design.
C. It allows virtual workloads to fail over to a failover site for disaster recovery purposes.
D. It optimizes performance and provides centralized management.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
How many Provisioning Services servers should the architect install in each of the three configured sites?
A. One server in each datacenter
B. Two servers in each datacenter
C. Three servers in each datacenter
D. Two servers in the primary datacenter, two servers in the secondary datacenter, and one server in the remaining datacenter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases. 1Y0-401 dumps
How should the resource pools be designed to host the infrastructure workloads and virtual desktops to ensure high availability?
A. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool to ensure easier management, fewer workload conflicts, and support for disaster recovery. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of eight XenServer hosts. A storage repository needs to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion, high availability, and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
B. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool to reflect the OU structure of Active Directory. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of 24 XenServer hosts. A storage repository needs to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion, high availability, and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
C. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of 16 XenServer hosts. Multiple storage repositories need to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion and high availability between resource pools and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
D. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool to ensure that the workloads can be streamed by Provisioning Services, including XenServer. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts. Multiple storage repositories need to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion, high availability between resource pools, and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario:
To ensure the security of its new solution, CGE wants to limit end-user access to USB peripherals. Policies have been implemented to disable USB redirection for all end users. As a company policy, only the Research end-user group will be allowed to access USB peripheral devices. What could a Citrix Architect design to meet the stated requirements?
A. A GPO that allows USB redirection, linked to the CGE OU.
B. A GPO that allows USB redirection, linked only to the Aberdeen and Houston OUs.
C. A Citrix policy that allows USB redirection, with a filter on the IP range for CGE\'s Aberdeen and Houston subnets.
D. A Citrix policy that allows USB redirection, with a filter on the Delivery Group for the Research end-user group desktop.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
What is the benefit of using the Local VM FlexCast model?
A. It is compatible with tablet devices.
B. It offers the greatest level of end-user personalization.
C. It supports a variety of hardware configurations from a single image.
D. It allows remote access to applications.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling \'Offline profile support\' benefit CGE\'s Sales end-user group?
A. It allows faster logons and logoffs.
B. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
C. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
D. It improves data accuracy in volatile environments.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. 1Y0-401 dumps The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
What are the benefits of using Hosted Shared servers provisioned from cloned VM templates?
A. It provides the highest end-user density at the lowest cost.
B. It provides the greatest level of end-user personalization and control.
C. It offers the lowest storage performance requirement and the highest end-user density.
D. It facilitates rapid provisioning.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling file and folder exclusions when configuring Citrix Profile management without folder redirection benefit CGE\'s Sales end-user group?
A. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
B. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
C. It improves application performance.
D. It allows faster logons and logoffs.
Correct Answer: A

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